Results 1 - 5 of 5
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | God can use woman in the ministry? | Gal 3:28 | OldTimer | 37264 | ||
I have no idea what a genitive possessive is, sorry. The reason that 1 Timothy 2:12 refers to marriage is context: Paul refers to Adam and Eve, who were husband and wife, and to the woman-wife (singular) bearing children in v.15. I'm sure that Paul didn't have in mind just any male/female relationship - but the marriage relationship leading to child bearing. To construe this passage as referencing ANY male/female relationship, or meaning headship of men to women in general, would impy that any man could lawfully impregnate any woman, wouldn't it? I did state in one of my many posts, that headship DOES exist today, but not all men over all women as you stated (at least I think it was you, someone did!) - but as headship of the husband over the wife as in Eph. 5:22. As for the deceived part, I need to re-read your original post, as I've forgotten what point you were making with that, OK? |
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2 | God can use woman in the ministry? | Gal 3:28 | RElderCascade | 37284 | ||
Thank you for promising to re-read my article, it will be worth your time, I took some notable time on it. Genitive possessive is the key to how one might know how to translate the word woman in 1 Timothy 2:12. You made use of Greek without a care for the parts of grammar. You must not do that. According to Douglas Moo (a very gifted Greek scholar) the absence of a definite article or possessive pronoun before the word for woman makes one translate it "woman", not wife. In Eph. 5:21-25 there is a possessive pronoun "her" is used which tips off the translator that "wife" is the best choice to translate the Greek word. In 1 Timothy 2 there is no definite article or possessive pronoun used, therefore "woman" is the best translation. The context is indeed telling the story but differently than you think. Don't you remember I oppose (with powerful reasoning) the idea of male dominance? Why don't you summarize why I find the Bible to teach male female equality not male dominance, I want to hear from you regarding that evidence in my article before I will respond to your statement "all men over all women", that is out of context! Another strong piece of contextual evidence for why the translators of every English version of the Bible I could find are in agreement that the word is best translated woman not wife in 1 Tim 2 is the warning to dress modestly. Surely you wouldn't say that the (same Greek) word should be translated "wives" there? That would lead one to believe that the single women could/should go ahead and dress immodestly. Otherwise they are the ones who had this in check and needed no exhortation, which is completely without any textual evidence for concluding at all. We must be consistent when we apply an interpretation, and without using the rules of grammar there is no hope of being consistent at all. |
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3 | God can use woman in the ministry? | Gal 3:28 | OldTimer | 37930 | ||
I apologize for the delay in replying, hope to get to it soon. I also apologize if any of you have tried to get to my website but couldn't, it appears to be offline because of excess bandwidth. Please try again later, Thanks, OldTimer. | ||||||
4 | God can use woman in the ministry? | Gal 3:28 | RElderCascade | 37931 | ||
Keep studying, I've been reading many other things recently as well. You must get Piper and Grudem's book: Recovering Biblical Manhood and Womanhood from Crossway Books. It is very worth it! | ||||||
5 | God can use woman in the ministry? | Gal 3:28 | OldTimer | 37933 | ||
What Paul Really Said About Women by John Temple Bristow is also very enlightening. Talk to you soon, OT | ||||||