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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Who is Jesus' God? | John 3:16 | Tara1 | 112014 | ||
Hi EdB, A. T. Robertson, in his book "Word Pictures in the New Testament, vol. 5 1932 on page 339 admits that "God is thy throne" or "Thy throne is God", either makes good sense. end quote. While having to admit this, A. T. Robertson nonetheless surely takes a different stand on Jesus' God being Jehovah since he was of the Baptist faith, you are correct. The same is true of John 1:1. Robertson though makes the affirmation, not I, that "the article is never meaningless in Greek". Since John 1:1 is void of the Gr. definite article "ho" some reason for this is to be determined. Many Greek scholars conclude therefore that the "theos" in question be understood as qualitative. I am simply explaining a text with sound reasoning that several Bible translations agree upon. Tara1 |
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2 | Who is Jesus' God? | John 3:16 | EdB | 112024 | ||
Tara1 What Robertson actually said was; "O God (ho theos). This quotation (the fifth) is from Psalm 45:7-8. A Hebrew nuptial ode (epithalamium) for a king treated here as Messianic. It is not certain whether ho theos is here the vocative (address with the nominative form as in John 20:28 with the Messiah termed theos as is possible, John 1:18) or ho theos is nominative (subject or predicate) with estin (is) understood: “God is thy throne” or “Thy throne is God.” Either makes good sense." EdB |
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