Results 1 - 4 of 4
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | If Jesus did it, way can't I? | John 1:1 | Morant61 | 91206 | ||
Greetings Radioman2! Excellent post my friend! It is important that people understand this issue. Our English is a translation of the Hebrew, not a transliteration. A transliteration simply puts the equivalent letters from the receptor language which conform with the source language. While a translation translates the 'meaning' of the term into the receptor language. For example, 'bread' in Greek is transliterated as 'artos'. So, a transliteration of the Greek word for bread, would simply write 'artos' everywhere 'bread' occurs. But, of what value is this to the one reading the English? English readers don't know what 'artos' means. This is exactly what happened in the Greek New Testament. The inspired authors always translated 'YHWH' as 'kurios'. The JW's propose all kinds of speculation about the practices of the 1st century Jews, and about the practices of the LXX, but none of this has any meaning as far as the New Testament is concerned. Every single Greek manuscript translates 'YHWH' as 'kurios' or 'Lord'. Therefore, there is absolutely no reason why we cannot translate 'YHWH' into English as Lord as well. The JW's try to make this practice into some kind of conspiracy. Yet, we have the Hebrew manuscripts. We have Strong's concordance. We have countless commentaries, all of which tell us that the Hebrew word was 'YHWH'. But, our English Bible is not written in Hebrew. ;-) Neither was the Greek New Testament written in Hebrew. The translators of the Bible have simply done the exact same thing that the New Testament writers did when they 'translated' 'YHWH' as 'kurios'. I know that you already know this my friend, but I just wanted to make sure that the rest of the forum was aware of this. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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2 | If Jesus did it, way can't I? | John 1:1 | Truthfinder | 91849 | ||
(Part2) English word for the tetragrammaton is Jehovah. They use the English word. Here are some examples: 19th-century Bible scholar E. Henderson wrote in his commentary on Jer 31:20: “Nothing can excel the touching exhibition of tender parental feeling towards a returning prodigal, which is here presented by Jehovah. . . . Though he had thus spoken against [the idolatrous Ephraimites] and punished them . . . , he never forgot them, but, on the contrary, delighted in the anticipation of their ultimate recovery.” In his commentary on Zephaniah, Professor C. F. Keil wrote: “Zephaniah’s prophecy . . . not only commences with the announcement of a universal judgment upon the whole world, out of which the judgment rises that will fall upon Judah on account of its sins, and upon the world of nations on account of its hostility to the people of Jehovah; but it treats throughout of the great and terrible day of Jehovah.” Tim you wrote, But, our English Bible is not written in Hebrew. ;-) Neither was the Greek New Testament written in Hebrew. The translators of the Bible have simply done the exact same thing that the New Testament writers did when they 'translated' 'YHWH' as 'kurios'. International acceptance of translation of God’s name is seen in their Bible translations. Here are a few of the various translations of the Hebrew “yhvh”: Awabakal - Yehóa Bugotu - Jihova Cantonese - Yehwowah Danish - Jehova Dutch - Jehovah Efik - Jehovah English - Jehovah Fijian - Jiova Finnish - Jehova French - Jéhovah Futuna - Ihova German - Jehova Hungarian - Jehova Igbo - Jehova Italian - Geova Japanese - Ehoba Maori - Ihowa Motu - Iehova Mwala-Malu - Jihova Narrinyeri - Jehovah Nembe - Jihova Petats - Jihouva Polish - Jehowa Portuguese - Jeová Romanian - Iehova Samoan - Ieova Sotho - Jehova Spanish - Jehová Swahili - Yehova Swedish - Jehova Tahitian - Iehova Tagalog - Jehova Tongan - Jihova Venda - Yehova Xhosa - uYehova Yoruba - Jehofah Zulu - uJehova So Tim, Jehovah is the English word for yhvh as most any “commentary” tells us, the prefaces of Bible Translations that do not use it in their main texts, do. You have admitted before that portions of the New Testament very well might have been originally written in Hebrew and you know Matthew most likely was. Thus your conclusion as to the translators’ of the Bible “reason” for changing what was original has no basis. I have already presented “evidence” not mere speculation of the scholars themselves that conclude the Greek and Matthew’s Hebrew originals contained the tetragrammaton and very very early perhaps some of the very first copies were “changed”. Thus no extant copies today. Clear and simple. Truthfinder |
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3 | If Jesus did it, way can't I? | John 1:1 | Morant61 | 91877 | ||
Greetings Truthfinder! You said that this theory was not mere speculation, but you ended your post with these words: "I have already presented “evidence” not mere speculation of the scholars themselves that conclude the Greek and Matthew’s Hebrew originals contained the tetragrammaton and very very early perhaps some of the very first copies were “changed”. Thus no extant copies today. Clear and simple." When someone says, 'perhaps' they were changed - to me that is speculation. We know that the New Testament was originall written in Greek. The only evidence for Hebrew versions is a couple of quotes about something that Matthew wrote first in Hebrew. No one is sure what that was, but we have thousands upon thousands of Greek manuscripts of the New Testament. How many times in all of these manuscripts does the Hebrew word 'YHWH' appear? Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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4 | If Jesus did it, way can't I? | John 1:1 | Truthfinder | 91901 | ||
Hi Tim, My "perhaps" was in reference as to "when" they would have been changed, since there are over 5,000 Greek manuscripts and only the instance in Revelation kept the abbreviated form of the tetragrammaton. The evidence that Matthew was written in Hebrew goes as far back as Papias of Hierapolis, of the second century C.E. Eusebius quoted Papias as stating: “Matthew collected the oracles in the Hebrew language.” (The Ecclesiastical History, III, XXXIX, 16) Early in the third century, Origen made reference to Matthew’s account and, in discussing the four Gospels, is quoted by Eusebius as saying that the “first was written . . . according to Matthew, who was once a tax-collector but afterwards an apostle of Jesus Christ, . . . in the Hebrew language.” (The Ecclesiastical History, VI, XXV, 3-6) The scholar Jerome (of the fourth and fifth centuries C.E.) wrote in his work De viris inlustribus (Concerning Illustrious Men), chapter III, that Matthew “composed a Gospel of Christ in Judaea in the Hebrew language and characters for the benefit of those of the circumcision who had believed. . . . Moreover, the Hebrew itself is preserved to this day in the library at Caesarea, which the martyr Pamphilus so diligently collected.”—Translation from the Latin text edited by E. C. Richardson and published in the series “Texte und Untersuchungen zur Geschichte der altchristlichen Literatur,” Leipzig, 1896, Vol. 14, pp. 8, 9. In the Matthew account it is also noted that the quotations of the Old Testament containing the Tetragrammaton are preserved. When Matthew though, was translated into the Greek, sometime later, those instances of the Tetragrammaton were changed to 'kurios. Truthfinder |
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