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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Why did God tell Abraham to kill his son | Gen 22:2 | Vintage68 | 214888 | ||
Hi Humbled I have added the brackets. Maybe this will help Rom.4:15 Because the law worketh wrath: (for where no law is), (there is no transgression). 1 John 3:4 (Whosoever committeth sin transgresseth also the law): (for sin is the transgression of the law). Ok If you want to split the hair about the exact wording. Sorry:-) Vintage68 |
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2 | Why did God tell Abraham to kill his son | Gen 22:2 | humbledbyhisgrace | 214939 | ||
Vintage, As a follow-up... The reason I point this out is due to the original question by bibleman12. He and/or his question at least seems to be trying to reconcile sin and why it's not considered sin that God tempted Abraham with. In his question you can see that from the start the view is tilted in that it has the understanding of God telling Abraham to "kill" his son. That is not what the scripture say but to our sin tainted minds/hearts we are easily lead astray by the simplest of words and/or deceit. So if we set out to reconcile this with the view that God told him to kill his son we are on the wrong road right from the start. Further complication is introduced when we seek to justify God through some technicality such as there was no law against murder when God told Abraham to offer Isaac as a burnt offering. Obviously you only have the written law in mind to make such a statement. The view skews reality and insinuates that murder was only a sin after the written law was established. That's a reverse of what is actually true. Murder has always been sinful. The example of Cain should help us understand that. Sin did not become sin because of the written Law! So if splitting hairs is what we need to do to gain an accurate understanding let's all split hairs so that we all might gain a proper understanding of His word! I'm okay with it! Some times I need others to split hairs for me :-) Again, from the scripture you used it clearly teaches there is no transgression of the law and that sin is not imputed. Neither verse you point to says there is no sin. Steve |
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