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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Predestination question? | 1 Tim 2:4 | Reformer Joe | 85031 | ||
"So then as through one transgression there resulted condemnation to all men, even so through one act of righteousness there resulted justification of life to all men." --Romans 5:18 My objection to your argument is that if we are seeing a strict parallel between Adam and Jesus and the extent and nature of their representation, why is it logical to conclude that we are all "potentially justified"? If the condemnation is not potential but actual, then the justification is as well. If the justification is potential and not actual, then we are only "potentially condemned" by Adam's transgression (i.e. not born into sin, and hypothetically able to "accept or reject" that condemnation). Is that an orthodox Christian view? --Joe! |
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2 | Predestination question? | 1 Tim 2:4 | gracefull | 85048 | ||
Potentially justified based on the decision of faith in Jesus. Potentially saved from the condemnation of Adam's transgression by faith in the promise. Both through faith had a choice. God bless |
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3 | Predestination question? | 1 Tim 2:4 | Reformer Joe | 85091 | ||
I think you misunderstand my point. You are arguing that faith is the means of escape from condemnation, and I agree completely. However, being born of Adam in our natural birth, we are automatically condemned. We are not born in some state of "potential condemnation," on a fence between condemnation and salvation. There are too many verses which indicate that those represented by Adam (i.e. the unsaved) are already in a state of condemnation (e.g. John 3:18; Ephesians 2:5) and we are brought from the condemnation in which we stand through our conversion to Christ (Colossians 1:13-14). Therefore, until one receives Christ, he is automatically in a state of condemnation. I believe Romans 5:18 teaches that. My problem comes when someone asserts that Adam's transgression resulted in ACTUAL condemnation for every single human being, but Christ's obedience results in POTENTIAL justification for every single human being. That ruins the whole parallel in the verse. To be consistent in the verse, one has to either believe in universalism (that everyone will be justified, an argument that some make using this verse); or else come up with a very good explanation as to why the "all men" in both clauses must refer to the same group of people but that one result (condemnation) is automatic and actual but that the other result (justification) is potential and must be activated by the human being to take effect. --Joe! |
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