Subject: Suffering and God's providence |
Bible Note: I think I already answered why I disagree with the above interpretation; cf. #162818. It seems you are allowing the verse to interpret itself without any consideration as to the context, which I still contend is persecution, cf. vs.12ff. Adam Clarke seems to express what I mean better than I can when he says, “A man suffers according to the will of God who suffers for righteousness' sake…” To suffer…period…is not the will of God. However, to maintain our witness to the gospel despite the persecution, is suffering according to the will of God. This is not man’s way of willing our suffering but it is God’s way. You said, that I “take the word 'suffer' from it's context and make it refer to 'all suffering'. The text does not say that 'all suffering' is a result of God's will...” If I gave you that impression, in relation to the text in question, I stand corrected. This verse has persecution in view and not all types of suffering. However, I still maintain on the basis of other Bible verses, that it is not God’s will that believer’s suffer any form of suffering; at least, not for sufferings sake. I can go further to say that it is not God’s intention that anyone suffer but, things being as they are, the infliction or allowing of suffering may be necessary. 1 Peter 4:19 – I think the suffering involved here has particular reference to any form of suffering endured because of one’s obedience to God. It discounts any suffering for doing what is wrong as suffering that is according to God’s will; and it does not have any reference at all to such sufferings as, for example, being sick or raped. Yet, Phil. 1:29 – With the privilege of believing in Christ and receiving all the benefits that accrue from grace, it is also a privilege to suffer for Christ – equivalent to suffering for righteousness sake. It is not to suffer itself that is “the gift”, but “to suffer for him” that is the gift. Anyone can suffer. It is what one suffers for that gives it value or meaning. |