Subject: Suffering and God's providence |
Bible Note: Hi Brother Tim, I agree that is what Peter wrote, however, that suffering itself is God’s will was not what, I believe, Peter meant by it; at least, not when the context is taken into consideration. None of the verses hint that God is the cause of their suffering or that he purposely intended it. Suffering, as Peter says, is the inevitable outcome of the Christian life because of worldly opposition; therefore, they should not be surprised when it occurs as if godliness assured peace and comfort (Gal 4:29; 2 Tim 3:12). Note vss.15-16. If there is to be suffering, he tells them it should be for doing right and not for doing wrong. This is “suffering according to the will of God,” when we suffer because we are doing what is right. To suffer in and of itself is not God’s will. If it were, then even the one who suffers for doing wrong would be “suffering according to the will of God” because he suffers, which would, evidently, make Peter’s exhortation in vs.15 meaningless. If it is God who causes and intends suffering, why pray for the sick to be healed? Don’t we want “God’s will” for the person”? Why counsel a woman who gets beaten everyday by her husband to separate from him? Why have an abusive husband arrested for that matter? When a child is being raped, he/she is “suffering according to God’s will.” Being raped, therefore, was the best thing that can happen to that child, is it not? I am only trying to follow the line of reasoning that would follow your objection. If suffering itself is God’s will, any believer who suffers for whatever reasons, wrong or right, is in God’s will; and any believer not suffering or who never experienced suffering is out of God’s will. |