Subject: Show in the Bible once saved always |
Bible Note: Dear New Creature, In reply to your Q:" Is a man predestinated by God to salvation because he believes in Christ or is he enabled to believe in Christ because he is predestinated?" If God predestined someone based upon His foreknowledge of their "accepting Christ" the term predestined would be meaningless. Rom 8:29,30 "For those whom He foreknew, He also predestined to become conformed to the image of His Son, so that He would be the firstborn among many brethren; and these whom He predestined, He also called; and these whom He called, He also justified; and these whom He justified, He also glorified." (this also supports God's preservation of the elect) As you can see from these verses predestination is preceeded by foreknowledge. The arminian proclaims that "foreknew" refers to God's foreknowledge of those who would (in the future),of their own free will, choose Christ. This is isogesis (forcing into scripture something the interpreter wants it to say). Armenian theology demands that foreknew must mean what they say it means, regardless of the context. Has God not foreknown every man whom he has or will create? Are all men called? If so all must be justified. Are all justified? No. That leasds us to the calvinist position which is that God foreknew those He would call, justify and glorify because He predestined them (the elect) before the foundation of the world. The arminian says that this is unfair, that for God to do this would be injust! God replys: Rom 9:20 On the contrary, who are you, O man, who answers back to God? The thing molded will not say to the molder, "Why did you make me like this," will it?" John Reformed |