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NASB | 2 Corinthians 1:5 For just as the sufferings of Christ are ours in abundance, so also our comfort is abundant through Christ. |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | 2 Corinthians 1:5 For just as Christ's sufferings are ours in abundance [as they overflow to His followers], so also our comfort [our reassurance, our encouragement, our consolation] is abundant through Christ [it is truly more than enough to endure what we must]. |
Subject: 2 Corinthians- What is 'suffering' |
Bible Note: Hi again; you wrote: 'Given by God and allowed by God are totally different. Scripture says it was a messenger(angel) FROM Satan. Scripture does not say "from God". God simply did not 'remove' it AND told Paul why!' Let's look at the verse in question: 'Because of the surpassing greatness of the revelations, for this reason, to keep me from exalting myself, there was given me a thorn in the flesh, a messenger of Satan to torment me--to keep me from exalting myself! Concerning this I implored the Lord three times that it might leave me. And He has said to me, "My grace is sufficient for you, for power is perfected in weakness." Most gladly, therefore, I will rather boast about my weaknesses, so that the power of Christ may dwell in me.' --2 Corinthians 12:7-9 We see the verb "given." The messenger is definitely of Satan, but precisely who did the giving? If we say that this was a gift of Satan, we have a theological problem: "Because of the surpassing greatness of the revelations, for this reason, to keep me from exalting myself"...Satan gave me a thorn in the flesh? Does this make sense to you? Either God did the giving or Satan is willingly doing the sanctifying work of God. Speaking of Epaphroditus, you wrote: "Paul did praise him for his Godly faith in continuing in service despite the sickness in his body and secondly God healed him." I must admit confusion on your position here. Why did FAITHFUL Epaphroditus get so sick and stay sick so long, if it was never God's will for that to happen? And, yes, God healed HIM. That was an act of His sovereign mercy, according to Paul, and not an obligation on God's part. Where do we see that He is obliged to heal everyone in the same manner? And regarding 1 Peter 2:24, let's look at the context: "For you have been called for this purpose, since Christ also suffered for you, leaving you an example for you to follow in His steps, WHO COMMITTED NO SIN, NOR WAS ANY DECEIT FOUND IN HIS MOUTH; and while being reviled, He did not revile in return; while suffering, He uttered no threats, but kept entrusting Himself to Him who judges righteously; and He Himself bore our sins in His body on the cross, so that we might die to sin and live to righteousness; for by His wounds you were healed. For you were continually straying like sheep, but now you have returned to the Shepherd and Guardian of your souls." --1 Peter 2:21-25 Now, reading the whole paragraph, is Peter's focus sin and spiritual healing, or illness and physical healing? Please support your answer in the context of his argument in the paragraph, chapter, and epistle. Thanks! --Joe! |