Prior Book | Prior Chapter | Prior Verse | Next Verse | Next Chapter | Next Book | Viewing NASB and Amplified 2015 | |
NASB | 1 Corinthians 15:27 For HE HAS PUT ALL THINGS IN SUBJECTION UNDER HIS FEET. But when He says, "All things are put in subjection," it is evident that He is excepted who put all things in subjection to Him. |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | 1 Corinthians 15:27 For HE (the Father) HAS PUT ALL THINGS IN SUBJECTION UNDER HIS (Christ's) FEET. But when He says, "All things have been put in subjection [under Christ]," it is clear that He (the Father) who put all things in subjection to Him (Christ) is excepted [since the Father is not in subjection to His own Son]. [Ps 8:6] |
Subject: What's Jesus' position? |
Bible Note: Hello Stokey Yes, it was a sweeping statement. The difficulty is that in both verses (5:26 and 17:2) "grant" is aorist which is defined as: a·o·rist n. 1.A form of a verb in some languages, such as Classical Greek, that expresses action without indicating its completion or continuation. 2.A form of a verb in some languages, such as Classical Greek or Sanskrit, that in the indicative mood expresses past action. Source: The American Heritage® Dictionary of the English Language, Fourth Edition Copyright © 2000 by Houghton Mifflin Company. aorist, n. A tense in the Greek language, which expresses an action as completed in past time, but leaves it, in other respects, wholly indeterminate. Source: Webster's Revised Unabridged Dictionary, © 1996, 1998 MICRA, Inc. aorist n : a verb tense in some languages (classical Greek; Sanskrit) expressing action (especially past) without indicating its completion or continuation. Source: WordNet ® 1.6, © 1997 Princeton University So all either of us can definitely say concerning this granting is that it happened prior to John 5:26 and continues on indefinitely. However, since we know that Jesus is Jehovah God (compare Isaiah 6:1-5 with John 12:41), we can safely assume it was before creation. Why was it necessary to grant it? I have no idea. Steve |