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NASB | Psalm 83:18 That they may know that You alone, whose name is the LORD, Are the Most High over all the earth. |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | Psalm 83:18 That they may know that You alone, whose name is the LORD, Are the Most High over all the earth. |
Subject: WHERE TO FIND ALL THE NAMES OF GOD |
Bible Note: Greetings Truthfinder! Two quick points before I translate John 8:58. 1) What do you mean when you say that Greek is aspectual? I am not familiar with that term. 2) Why would I have to be completely time indifferent, since Greek is not time indifferent? It has past, present, perfect, and future tenses. Here is my translation, with the parsing of the verbs: "He said (Aorist, Active, Indicative, 3rd Person, Singular) to them Jesus, 'Truly, truly I say (Present, Active, Indicative, 1st Person, Singular) to you, before Abraham was born (Aorist, Middle Deponent, Infinitive)I I am (Present, Active, Indicative, 1st Person, Singular)." A smoothed out translation would be: "Jesus said to them, 'Truly, Truly I say to you before Abraham was born I am'" There isn't any doubt as to what Jesus was doing in this verse. He uses the exact phrase that Jehovah used of Himself in Ex. 3:14, as translated by the LXX. What was the question to which Jesus was responding? They had asked Him how He could have seen Abraham, since He was not even 50 years old. His answer, "I AM". I was "I AM" before Abraham was even born. "I AM" even now. What was their response to His answer? They tried to stone Him for blasphemy. The real problem for the NWT is that is does not want people to make the connection between John 8:58 and Ex. 3:14. So, an attempt is made to say that "I am" is ungrammatical. But, Jesus was not attempting to be grammatical. He was responding to their question by saying that He was God, using the title "I AM". I have read the defenses that the JW's have put out for their translation and I don't buy it. But, even if one could buy their defense, how would you explain that Jesus uses this same title in John 8:28. In that verse, Jesus says that after they have killed Him that they will come to know that "I AM". Didn't they already know that He existed? Would we translate this verse as "I have been"? They killed Him, of course they knew that He existed. What they would come to know about Him was His identity as the "I AM" of Ex. 3:14. p.s. - I have asked this question a couple of times on the forum, but how could Jesus be 'a god' when God says in Is. 43:10 that there are no other gods? Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |