Subject: Sovereignty and Free-Will |
Bible Note: If you look at the example already given you will see that His light does shine to all, but many are blind and can not see it (2 Cor 4:4). Do blind people see light? This is the reason you may have different responses when people hear the very same message preached (some are saved--new eyes, some are lost--dead eyes). The Scripture says he that hath ears, indicating some hath not ears (spiritual)....Christ healed some blind and thus they could now see the light (but not all without exception). To YOUR QUESTION: Do you think it is God's desire to keep some in the dark indefinitely?, Yes, I believe in election (Eph 1). P.S. A dead man (Eph 2:1) cannot see! He needs a new life (which has new spiritual eyes--John 3) Now, let me ask you a question: 1. Did Christ die for all sins of all men? 2. Did Christ die for some sins of all men? 3. Did Christ die for all sins of some men? If Christ dies for (1) "all sins of all men" then why are any lost? After-all is not "unbelief" a sin? And if He died for the sin of "unbelief" how could any be lost--but some are aren't they! If Christ died for (2) "some sins of all men" then we do not have an atonement for "all sin" without exception and all are still in sin! Thus, Christ died for (3) "all sins of some men" --His elect that some according to His purpose and plan may be saved (Eph 1, Rom 8-11). |