Subject: Sovereignty and Free-Will |
Bible Note: YOU SAID: Scripture clearly states: "He died for all" 2 Cor. 5:15 Does "all" in 2 Cor. 5:15 and elsewhere exclude anyone? NO, it does NOT, when taken in context: 2 Cor 5: 17-18, 21 Therefore if any man be IN CHRIST, he is a new creature: old things are passed away; behold, all things are become new. 18 And all things are of God, who hath reconciled US to himself by Jesus Christ, and hath given to US the ministry of reconciliation;…. 21 For he hath made him to be sin for US, who knew no sin; that WE might be made the righteousness of God in him. The preposition “for” indicates He died -in behalf of,- or -in the place of- all (Is. 53:4–12—note the terms US, WE, MANY; Gal. 3:13; Heb. 9:11–14, Eph—His Church, John His sheep, etc). Everyone who died in Christ receives the benefits of His substitutionary death (Rom. 3:24–26; 6:8). With this short phrase, Paul defined the extent of the atonement and limited its application. This statement logically completes the meaning of the preceding phrase, in effect saying, --Christ died for all who died in Him,-- or --One died for all, therefore all died-- (vv. 19–21; cf. John 10:11–16; Acts 20:28). Paul was overwhelmed with gratitude that Christ loved him and was so gracious as to make him a part of the all who died in Him. Of course much more could be stated, but there is not room or time—get out your Greek texts and read it from the original language! You keep missing context of the verses! ---- When 1 John 2:2 says: "he is the propitiation for our (our those who believe) sins: and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world. Does "the whole world" in the above verse exclude anyone? Again, you mis-state the facts. The term world has at least 7 different meanings in Scripture. Here it is speaking of the world of the Gentiles that will be saved as compared to the Jews. Who was John writing too. CONTEXT, CONTEXT! Look here for a more complete/biblical explanation of this verse and the others you plan to assert: http://www.the-highway.com/atonement.html -- Now, let me ask you a question: This is the fourth time this is posted and yet no answers??? 1. Did Christ die for all sins of all men? 2. Did Christ die for some sins of all men? 3. Did Christ die for all sins of some men? If Christ dies for (1) "all sins of all men" then why are any lost? After-all is not "unbelief" a sin? And if He died for the sin of "unbelief" how could any be lost--but some are aren't they! If Christ died for (2) "some sins of all men" then we do not have an atonement for "all sin" without exception and all are still in sin! Thus, Christ died for (3) "all sins of some men" --His elect that some according to His purpose and plan may be saved (Eph 1, Rom 8-11). |