Subject: Sovereignty and Free-Will |
Bible Note: YOUR PREMISE is faulty though. You state: However, it is also possible that God being sovereign and all powerful could have created beings (humans) that were actually capable of either desiring a relationship with God or not desiring it. Their nature could be partially corrupted so that they have a tendancy to choose to reject God, but still have the ability to overcome that first instinct. Then some of them would choose to love God and would deserve heaven (only by God’s grace of providing a way to salvation through Jesus). But others would choose to reject God and His salvation and would deserve Hell. Thus everyone gets what they deserve (in a greater sense). ---- We will just look at one of your phrases as the other revolve around them: Where does it say “that God being sovereign and all powerful could have created beings (humans) that were actually capable of either desiring a relationship with God or not desiring it.” Even you said could have, where is this in Scripture? What ability, capability, or desires does a dead man have? (Eph 2:1)--NONE. He is spiritual dead in trespasses and sin. The Scripture is clear “no man seeketh after God,” how many “no not one” (Rom 3:10-11). So even if you assertion is correct and one has ability, capability, or desire (which of course is not the case—John 1:13), they still would not seek after God and thus your case folds because the Scripture does not support your assumption. To assert otherwise would be to say there is some degree of righteousness in every man (something that was not corrupted), but “they are all gone out of the way, they are together become unprofitable; there is none that doeth good, no, not one. (Rom 3:12). The quoted example (in the beginning of the post) is very clear and it does address (1) the truth of Scripture, (2) yes, it is the Calvinistic belief against Arminianism, which is not supported with proper Scriptural exegesis. Now, let me ask you a question: 1. Did Christ die for all sins of all men? 2. Did Christ die for some sins of all men? 3. Did Christ die for all sins of some men? If Christ dies for (1) "all sins of all men" then why are any lost? After-all is not "unbelief" a sin? And if He died for the sin of "unbelief" how could any be lost--but some are aren't they! If Christ died for (2) "some sins of all men" then we do not have an atonement for "all sin" without exception and all are still in sin! Thus, Christ died for (3) "all sins of some men" --His elect that some according to His purpose and plan may be saved (Eph 1, Rom 8-11). |