Subject: Sovereignty and Free-Will |
Bible Note: JRdoc; Scripture clearly states: "He died for all" 2 Cor. 5:15 also 1 John 2:2 states And he is the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world. Does "all" in 2 Cor. 5:15 and elsewhere exclude anyone? When 1 John 2:2 says: "he is the propitiation for our (our those who believe) sins: and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world. Does "the whole world" in the above verse exclude anyone? The atonement He made was made for "all" the offer of salvation is universally offered to all, but is made actual only for those who receive it by faith. It's not salvation that is universal, only the offer of salvation. God bless you |