Results 1 - 3 of 3
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Good-bye, NIV | 2 Tim 3:16 | Reformer Joe | 32902 | ||
Okay, I hope you will forgive me for so quickly going back on MY claim to only make one comment, but here are some of the disturbing things that I have seen regarding the TNIV. First of all, what about those situations where the author CLEARLY used the feminine nouns. For example, James 4:4 in the TNIV reads "You adulterous people" rather than "You adulteresses." What is the justification for changing THAT, since the Greek clearly renders it as a feminine description? Other things that bother me have not to do with the text itself, but the spin that is being put on this edition. Here are some statements from the IBS Web site: "The NIV is an extremely accurate Bible text, the best the CBT could produce as of 1984. The TNIV is an even slightly more accurate Bible text, the best the CBT could produce as of 2001." The TNIV is MORE accurate? That is quite a statement, don't you think. And in only 16 years they managed to improve seven percent of their previously "good" work! "There is a growing need to reach today's generation with language they can understand and relate to. As English language usage changes, the Scriptures must be presented with unwavering accuracy in a way that clearly and accurately communicates in today's language." Unwavering accuracy....hmmmmmm. Beware, my brothers (and sisters) of anything done in today's evangelical market to "reach" individuals in terms that they can relate to. That usually comes by way of diluting those hard-to-digest, but timeless truths that collide with the spirit of our age. In addition, many of the New Testament passages which utilize the word "Christ" now use the word "Messiah," despite the fact that there is no textual basis for changing the word. Yes, Christ and Messiah are equivalent words, but God inspired Christos in the Greek, and 2000 years of church tradition has consistently made a distinction in its translation of the word "Messiah" (e.g John 1:41, John 4:25; Matthew 1) and the word "Christ." It is quite presumptuous of them to make what I consider to be completely unnecessary "revisions" in the clear Greek text itself. A lot of the changes are defended by their efforts to "make clearer" the doctrine that is found in Scripture. Since theology is subject to interpretation from the text itself, wouldn't it be wiser to be as faithful as possible to the original Hebrew, Aramaic, and Greek and let the church itself be occupied with the proper interpretation of the text? Well, those are my 20 cents... --Joe! |
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2 | Good-bye, NIV | 2 Tim 3:16 | wak | 33131 | ||
Reformer Joe, are you being serious or sarcastic with your statement below: "A lot of the changes are defended by their efforts to "make clearer" the doctrine that is found in Scripture. Since theology is subject to interpretation from the text itself, wouldn't it be wiser to be as faithful as possible to the original Hebrew, Aramaic, and Greek and let the church itself be occupied with the proper interpretation of the text?" My guess is you don't want any translations of the Bible for the unwashed masses. But you could be also using sarcasm very effectively to make a great point for the opposite viewpoint. Wish I had thought of it. (Sorry for my minor nastiness but it reflects my reaction to your statement,not you. I've learned a lot from many of your posts in the archieves. Even the saved/not saved stuff was good, until it got personal) God Bless you |
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3 | Good-bye, NIV | 2 Tim 3:16 | Reformer Joe | 33149 | ||
You wrote: "My guess is you don't want any translations of the Bible for the unwashed masses." Your guess would be wrong. Since I am one of the "unwashed masses" myself, I really appreciate those Bible translations that do not sacrifice accuracy for what their translators claim to be "clarity." One does not need to dumb down Scripture. --Joe! |
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