Results 1 - 5 of 5
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | The ransom - God or man? | 1 Cor 15:21 | alienresident | 132198 | ||
Did the Messiah have to be God in order to undo Adamic sin? All Scripture dealing with the merits of Jesus ransom equate him with Adam. Is his deity required in order to effect our redemption? | ||||||
2 | The ransom - God or man? | 1 Cor 15:21 | following him | 132435 | ||
This has been an interesting thread, although rather difficult to follow at times and did not intend to join in on it; however I feel the Lord wants me to post this comment. The Messiah had to be a man. However because Adam sinned and thus put all men under the bondage of sin. “There are none righteous…” The only one able to pay the price was God. The purpose of the law was to show mankind that their efforts could in no way redeem them from the curse. The law then points to the need for Christ. The question should not be “Did the Messiah have to be God” it should be “Did God have to become man?” Heb 2:14-17 ”Therefore, since the children share in flesh and blood, He Himself likewise also partook of the same, that through death He might render powerless him who had the power of death, that is, the devil, and might free those who through fear of death were subject to slavery all their lives. For assuredly He does not give help to angels, but He gives help to the descendant of Abraham. Therefore, He had to be made like His brethren in all things, so that He might become a merciful and faithful high priest in things pertaining to God, to make propitiation for the sins of the people.” Christ is never equated with Adam but instead is contrasted with him i.e. Adam sinned – Christ was sinless, Adam brought death – Christ conquer it. Adam brought bondage to sin – Christ freed us from it. Christ did what Adam did not. But it remains that because death and the lose of authority over the creation came about because of man, man had to restore it. This is the concept of the kinsman redeemer found in the book of Ruth and in areas of the law. Christ became our kinsman redeemer. Christ is indeed fully God for only God could meet the requirements needed and fully man for only man could pay the price. Blessing to you Aaron |
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3 | The ransom - God or man? | 1 Cor 15:21 | alienresident | 132469 | ||
I'm glad you waited as your comments seem most contemplative. I agree, the law was a tutor leading to Christ. The sacrifice of animals, according to God's arrangement, allowed for temporary relief only or atonement for sins. As Paul defines, the blood of animals was not able to save continually, being inferior to man's blood that "contains the soul" or life. God does not condone the taking of innocent blood, so of course God's people were not instructed to use humans for sacrifice like the pagans. But the fact is, not even a human could stand in for Adam's life, as he was created sinless. You say the question should be “Did God have to become man?” That will work for this discussion as well and may be better. The answer in my opinion is NO. The one to become man only had to be sinless, and any faithful angel could have satifsfied this criteria. If you read all my posts, you know why I feel God could not have been the ransom. To reiterate, "all his activities are perfect." (Deut 32:4) The ransom had to be like Adam in order to be truly tested by Satan. The issues raised by Satan, in order to be resolved, would have to involve a created being with freewill and living in the flesh in the physical realm. The theme of the Bible is not man's salvation (although that is a secondary theme). The theme is the vindication of God's rightful sovereignty. God could not prove this without the testimony of his creation. So Jesus being the ransom, he must be created. Is this Scriptural? (Col 1:15; Rev 3:14; Prov 8:22) |
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4 | The ransom - God or man? | 1 Cor 15:21 | following him | 132473 | ||
Is this scriptural. According to your New world Translation; yes. According to Divinely inspired scripture; No! I know that it will be a waste of both our time to continue this discussion because neither of us will be swayed by the others opinion. However I do want to make this comment. The theme in the Bible is not the vinidcation of God's rightful sovereignty it is the redemption of creation, man and nature. God in no way needs to prove His sovereinty. You have to prove something only when it is in doubt. There never has been any doubt to His sovereinty. | ||||||
5 | The ransom - God or man? | 1 Cor 15:21 | JCrichton | 132505 | ||
Hi, Following Him! Excellent comeback, on both counts! God Bless! Angel |
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