Results 1 - 5 of 5
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | An interesting discussion/question | Romans | hopalong | 205139 | ||
Tim, "all men" often means all "kinds" of men. Given the fact that not all men are justified, I am strongly inclined to the latter definition. Hoppy |
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2 | An interesting discussion/question | Romans | Morant61 | 205241 | ||
Greetings Hoppy! Sorry for the delay in responding. My middle daughter is performing in a major production of Peter Pan and my wife and I went to see it last night. :-) As to your point about 'all', certainly 'all' can refer to 'kinds'. I believe it is much more rare than some, but it certainly is possible. However, would the context allow such an interpretation? In this passage, Paul makes several comparisons and contrasts between Adam and Christ. 1) In v. 12, one man sinned, but all died because all men sinned. Would one argue here that 'all' only means 'kinds' or does Paul mean 'every' individual? 2) V. 15 defines the extent of God's grace and says that it is even more than the result of Adam's sin. Clearly the word 'many' here means 'all', since 'all' have sinned, not just some. So, how could it be said of God's grace 'how much more' if God's grace only extends to some, while Adam's sin extents to each individual? 3) V. 18 again compares the condemnation brought by Adam (to all men), while Christ brings life to all men. Would one argue that the first all refers to individuals, while the second all refers to 'kinds' of men? Would one argue that not 'all' men are condemned? 4) V. 19 again refers to the extent of each one's actions. The many were made sinners, while many will be made righteous. My original point when quoting this passage is not that all men are justified. This passage never says that all men are justified. It does however address the extent of the atonement. Christ died for all men. How then do they become justified? According to v. 17, they have to receive the gift! This is the same argument that Paul makes in 2 Cor. 5 that God has reconciled the world to Himself, now we must be reconciled. So, this passage refutes that God's will is to only save some. The gift is offered to all. So, I would respectfully disagree that 'all' only refers to kinds of men. :-) p.s. - Just so this doesn't break out into a long debate on C and A, I will only respond to specifics about this passage. Hopefully, that will limit the discussion somewhat. I have seen long debates on 'all' in the past. :-) Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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3 | An interesting discussion/question | Romans | hopalong | 205248 | ||
Tim, Your primary contention seem to be..."So, I would respectfully disagree that 'all' only refers to kinds of men." How then do we avoid the false doctrine of univeral salvation? Hoppy |
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4 | An interesting discussion/question | Romans | lionheart | 205252 | ||
Hoppy, Good day to ya buddy. I just need a little clarity so that I understand where this going. What are you saying when you refer to universal salvation? I've heard different explanations on this subject and I just want to ensure that I'm on the same page with you guys. In Him, lionheart |
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5 | An interesting discussion/question | Romans | hopalong | 205260 | ||
hi lion, The doctrine held by those who believe that none will perish but that all of fallen mankind will be saved. Hoppy |
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