Results 1 - 7 of 7
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Sovereignty and Free-Will | John | JRdoc | 61218 | ||
If you look at the example already given you will see that His light does shine to all, but many are blind and can not see it (2 Cor 4:4). Do blind people see light? This is the reason you may have different responses when people hear the very same message preached (some are saved--new eyes, some are lost--dead eyes). The Scripture says he that hath ears, indicating some hath not ears (spiritual)....Christ healed some blind and thus they could now see the light (but not all without exception). To YOUR QUESTION: Do you think it is God's desire to keep some in the dark indefinitely?, Yes, I believe in election (Eph 1). P.S. A dead man (Eph 2:1) cannot see! He needs a new life (which has new spiritual eyes--John 3) Now, let me ask you a question: 1. Did Christ die for all sins of all men? 2. Did Christ die for some sins of all men? 3. Did Christ die for all sins of some men? If Christ dies for (1) "all sins of all men" then why are any lost? After-all is not "unbelief" a sin? And if He died for the sin of "unbelief" how could any be lost--but some are aren't they! If Christ died for (2) "some sins of all men" then we do not have an atonement for "all sin" without exception and all are still in sin! Thus, Christ died for (3) "all sins of some men" --His elect that some according to His purpose and plan may be saved (Eph 1, Rom 8-11). |
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2 | Sovereignty and Free-Will | John | New Creature | 61267 | ||
JRdoc; Scripture clearly states: "He died for all" 2 Cor. 5:15 also 1 John 2:2 states And he is the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world. Does "all" in 2 Cor. 5:15 and elsewhere exclude anyone? When 1 John 2:2 says: "he is the propitiation for our (our those who believe) sins: and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world. Does "the whole world" in the above verse exclude anyone? The atonement He made was made for "all" the offer of salvation is universally offered to all, but is made actual only for those who receive it by faith. It's not salvation that is universal, only the offer of salvation. God bless you |
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3 | Sovereignty and Free-Will | John | JRdoc | 61273 | ||
YOU SAID: Scripture clearly states: "He died for all" 2 Cor. 5:15 Does "all" in 2 Cor. 5:15 and elsewhere exclude anyone? NO, it does NOT, when taken in context: 2 Cor 5: 17-18, 21 Therefore if any man be IN CHRIST, he is a new creature: old things are passed away; behold, all things are become new. 18 And all things are of God, who hath reconciled US to himself by Jesus Christ, and hath given to US the ministry of reconciliation;…. 21 For he hath made him to be sin for US, who knew no sin; that WE might be made the righteousness of God in him. The preposition “for” indicates He died -in behalf of,- or -in the place of- all (Is. 53:4–12—note the terms US, WE, MANY; Gal. 3:13; Heb. 9:11–14, Eph—His Church, John His sheep, etc). Everyone who died in Christ receives the benefits of His substitutionary death (Rom. 3:24–26; 6:8). With this short phrase, Paul defined the extent of the atonement and limited its application. This statement logically completes the meaning of the preceding phrase, in effect saying, --Christ died for all who died in Him,-- or --One died for all, therefore all died-- (vv. 19–21; cf. John 10:11–16; Acts 20:28). Paul was overwhelmed with gratitude that Christ loved him and was so gracious as to make him a part of the all who died in Him. Of course much more could be stated, but there is not room or time—get out your Greek texts and read it from the original language! You keep missing context of the verses! ---- When 1 John 2:2 says: "he is the propitiation for our (our those who believe) sins: and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world. Does "the whole world" in the above verse exclude anyone? Again, you mis-state the facts. The term world has at least 7 different meanings in Scripture. Here it is speaking of the world of the Gentiles that will be saved as compared to the Jews. Who was John writing too. CONTEXT, CONTEXT! Look here for a more complete/biblical explanation of this verse and the others you plan to assert: http://www.the-highway.com/atonement.html -- Now, let me ask you a question: This is the fourth time this is posted and yet no answers??? 1. Did Christ die for all sins of all men? 2. Did Christ die for some sins of all men? 3. Did Christ die for all sins of some men? If Christ dies for (1) "all sins of all men" then why are any lost? After-all is not "unbelief" a sin? And if He died for the sin of "unbelief" how could any be lost--but some are aren't they! If Christ died for (2) "some sins of all men" then we do not have an atonement for "all sin" without exception and all are still in sin! Thus, Christ died for (3) "all sins of some men" --His elect that some according to His purpose and plan may be saved (Eph 1, Rom 8-11). |
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4 | Sovereignty and Free-Will | John | New Creature | 61297 | ||
"The Bible says Christ takes away the sin of the world and is Savior of the world. A study of the word ‘world’--especially in John, where it is used seventy-eight times--shows that the world is God-hating, Christ-rejecting, and Satan-dominated. Yet this is the world for which Christ died. There is not one place in the entire New Testament where ‘world’ means ‘church’ or ‘the elect,’ as many Calvinists insist. Considering the unequivocal force of such evidence, there is absolutely no logical reason to deny that when the text says ‘world’ it means ‘world,’ and everybody in it." (Grace of God, Will of Man; p. 80.) on John 3:16, Calvin said: ". . . The Heavenly Father loves the human race, and wishes that they should not perish.''11 Concerning the term whosoever in the same verse, he said: "And he has employed the universal term whosoever, both to invite all indiscriminately to partake of life, and to cut off every excuse from unbelievers. Such is also the impact of the term world, which he formerly used; for though nothing will be found in the world that is worthy of the favour of God, yet he shows himself to be reconciled to the whole world, when he invites all men without exception to the faith of Christ, which is nothing else than an entrance into life.'' John Calvin, Commentary on the Gospel According to John (Grand Rapids: Wm. Eerdmans Publishing Co., 1949), I, p. 125 . The fact is the limited view was not popularly held until the Synod of Dort (1619) and the Westminster Confession of Faith (1647) long after Calvin’s death "The Term "Limited Atonement" Really Means Limited Love, Limited Grace of God, and So Slanders God, and Is Unscriptural" (source unknown) |
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5 | Sovereignty and Free-Will | John | JRdoc | 61320 | ||
YOU SAID: "Considering the unequivocal force of such evidence, there is absolutely no logical reason to deny that when the text says ‘world’ it means ‘world,’ and everybody in it." (Grace of God, Will of Man; p. 80.) 1. I never said the term “world” meant the elect, but I did say it had at least 7 different definitions (see below, from Owen’s work Death of the Death). Thus, your “unequivocal force of such evidence” is once again assumption and once again no Scripture: The word "kosmos", and its English equivalent "world", is not used with a uniform significance in the New Testament. Very far from it. It is used in quite a number of different ways. 1. "Kosmos" is used of the Universe as a whole: Acts 17:24 "God that made the world and all things therein, seeing that He is Lord of heaven and earth." 2. "Kosmos" is used of the earth: John 13:1; Eph 1:4, etc.: "When Jesus knew that His hour was come that He should depart out of this world unto the Father, having loved His own which were in the world He loved them unto the end. "Depart out of this world" signifies, leave this earth. "According as He hath chosen us in Him before the foundation of the world". This expression signifies. before the earth was founded — compare Job 38:4, etc. 3. "Kosmos" is used of the world-system: John 12:31, etc.: "Now is the judgment of this world: now shall the Prince of this world be cast out" — compare Matt. 4:8 and 1 John 5:19, R.V. 4. "Kosmos" is used of the whole human race: Rom. 3:19, etc.-"Now we know that what things soever the law saith, it saith to them who are under the law: that every mouth may be stopped, and all the world may become guilty before God." 5. "Kosmos" is used of humanity minus believers: John 15:18; Rom 3:6: — "If the world hate you, ye know that it hated Me before it hated you." Believers do not "hate" Christ, so that "the world" here must signify the world of unbelievers in contrast from believers who love Christ, "God forbid: for then how shall God judge the world." Here is another passage where "the world" cannot mean 'you, me, and everybody', for believers will not be "judged" by God, see John 5:24. So that here, too, it must be the world of unbelievers which is in view. 6. "Kosmos" is used of Gentiles in contrast from Jews: Rom. 11:12, etc.— "Now if the fall of them (Israel) be the riches of the world, and the diminishing of them (Israel) the riches of the Gentiles; how much more their (Israel's) fulness." Note how the first clause in bold face is defined by the latter clause placed in bold face. Here, again, "the world" cannot signify all humanity for it excludes Israel! 7. "Kosmos" is used of believers only: John 1:29; 3:16,17; 6:33; 12:47; 1 Cor. 4:9; 2 Cor. 5:19. ---- YOU QUOTE: on John 3:16, Calvin said: ". . . The Heavenly Father loves the human race, and wishes that they should not perish.''11 Concerning the term whosoever in the same verse, he said: "And he has employed the universal term whosoever, both to invite all indiscriminately to partake of life, and to cut off every excuse from unbelievers. Such is also the impact of the term world, which he formerly used; for though nothing will be found in the world that is worthy of the favour of God, yet he shows himself to be reconciled to the whole world, when he invites all men without exception to the faith of Christ, which is nothing else than an entrance into life.'' John Calvin, Commentary on the Gospel According to John (Grand Rapids: Wm. Eerdmans Publishing Co., 1949), I, p. 125 Once again you are attempting to quote a book and not Scripture. I never once said I agreed with “everything” Calvin ever wrote. See link: http://www.the-highway.com/atonement.html ---- YOU STATE: The fact is the limited view was not popularly held until the Synod of Dort (1619) and the Westminster Confession of Faith (1647) long after Calvin’s death So, now we are to maintain HISTORY and YOUR BOOKS over against what Scripture states. Besides your facts on history being incorrect, your assumption to put both of these “fallible” works above the “infallible” Word of God is inexcusable. --- YOU STATE: "The Term "Limited Atonement" Really Means Limited Love, Limited Grace of God, and So Slanders God, and Is Unscriptural" (source unknown)” Source UNKNOWN, correct, it is NOT GOD’S definition. I do not serve an UNKNOWN GOD who writes his statements, I serve the Living God, you uses terms such as grace, election, predestination, calling. May God give you eyes to see and ears to hear. |
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6 | Sovereignty and Free-Will | John | New Creature | 61355 | ||
The Lord is not slack concerning his promise, as some men count slackness; but is longsuffering to us-ward, not willing that any should perish, but that all should come to repentance. 2 Pet. 3:9 Concerning the Lord's will: His will is that none perish. "none" to me means no one Those who do eventually perish, have only theirself to blame, because they rejected the free offer of eternal life |
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7 | Sovereignty and Free-Will | John | JRdoc | 61360 | ||
CONTEXT: Look at vs 8 he is speaking to the BELOVED, look at the very verse you quoted US-WARD |
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