Results 1 - 4 of 4
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Predestination question? | 1 Tim 2:4 | John Reformed | 84575 | ||
Dear Scribe, Rom 5:17 For if by the transgression of the one, death reigned through the one, much more those who receive the abundance of grace and of the gift of righteousness will reign in life through the One, Jesus Christ. Romans 5:18 Therefore as by the offence of one judgment came upon all men to condemnation; even so by the righteousness of one the free gift came upon all men unto justification of life. Let us not compound the (alleged) problem of skimming over v. 18 by skimming over v. 17 as well. Who will reign in life through the One, Jesus Christ? The answer is " those who receive the abundance of grace and of the gift of righteousness". To whom does "all men" refer to in v. 18? All men who recieve the free gift. The free gift is bestowed upon all men "who receive the abundance of grace and of the gift of righteousness will reign in life through the One, Jesus Christ." Not all men universally as a potential gift. 1 Tim 2:4 who desires all men to be saved and to come to the knowledge of the truth. If you are interested in digging deeper into 1Tim 2:4, may I suggest you read John Piper's article at http://www.desiringgod.org/library/topics/doctrines_grace/2wills.html. God Bless, John |
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2 | Predestination question? | 1 Tim 2:4 | Morant61 | 84582 | ||
Greetings John! Long time, no see my friend! Without starting a long discussion on this issue, I do have a couple of quick questions about Rom. 5:18. Does the first 'all' refer to the same group as the second 'all'? If not, what indication is there in the text that the same group is not being discussed in both clauses? Why would the first 'all' refer to each individual, but the second 'all' only refer to some individuals? Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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3 | Predestination question? | 1 Tim 2:4 | gracesdaughter | 84588 | ||
Hi John and Tim! I hope you don't mind my "two cents" on the predestination issue. Tim, you mentioned Romans 5:18. I believe both "all"'s refer to the same group of people - ALL! Here is the hangup. God almighty is omnipotent, omnipresent, etc. Try to imagine Him in the infinite past prior to the creation of the universe. At this time God could see all possible worlds which He could create. He knew if He created the world we are living in now that I would at this very instant be typing these exact words...He also knew that I would become a Christian at age 7, that millions of other people would also become Christians and that still millions more would choose NOT to become Christians. Despite the good and the bad issues of this world, God in His infinite wisdom chose to create this world of all the ones possible. In my opinion this is predestination - God knew who would make which choice, but He did not force any individuals to make any decision. |
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4 | Predestination question? | 1 Tim 2:4 | Morant61 | 84601 | ||
Greetings Gracesdaughter! Thanks for the input! If I can collect a few more '2 cents', I can buy a can of Pepsi! ;-) I mostly agree with your statement. The only point I would differ on a little is that I see 'predestination' as a reference to circumstances, not primarily individuals. Thus, it was predestined that salvation would be by grace through faith, not by works. Well, I have to get to bed so I can work tonight! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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