Results 1 - 6 of 6
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Women in Ministry | 1 Tim 2:12 | yayatheresa | 145848 | ||
I have spent some time reading the notes, questions and responses on this site. This is my first note. I am a woman. I do not write this as someone with a personal and official ministry such as Joyce Meyer(?), Gloria Copeland, Paula White, etc. I am the wife of a deacon and considered a deacon as well in my church. I am also someone with a personal relationship with Christ and consider myself to be part of the "Great Commission" of Matthew 28:18-20. As of this writing that is the extent of my "ministry". I thank God for it and do not want to sound as if I minimize it. Only to assure the reader I do not have a personal agenda in what I write. I am seeking to know the truth as God declares it regardless of how it affects me personally as a woman. This writing of Paul in 1 Tim 2:11-12 as well as 1 Cor. 14:34-35 are the main texts given as to the silence of women in church. (Please anyone knowing of others let me know) I believe Paul explains the text in 1 Cor. by his response in V. 36. "What? came the word of God out from you? or came it unto you only?" He, as I understand, is responding to thier own teaching (V34 and 35) with his answer (V36). I will paraphrase it this way, "Are you serious? Are you God? and did you send out the word? or do you think you men are the only ones the word can come to?" The text in Timothy causes me to ask some questions. #1 Who is the man that the woman is not to usurp authority over? Is it any man at all? her husband? the male authority in her assembly? Or could it be Jesus Christ himself? #2 The use of the particular word usurp is important. One definition according to Webster is "to seize or exercise authority or possession wrongfully" Doesn't this sound like the woman here is trying to assume authority OVER the person (man or woman?) that God has placed in the position in question? Timothy was left in charge of the church in Ephesus where the main focus of the city had been on the worship of the goddess Diana. (Act 19:27-28) Could this spiritual wickedness have been a reason for this verse? I do not want to appear to say that this text is not for all times and all people. It is, as is all scripture. I have a problem with scripture being explained away with phrases such as "that was for their culture" or "that was for their time". I am convinced that God the Holy Spirit was not only in control of the content of the Holy Scriptures but also of preserving the exact content he wanted. No doubt there were letters and sermons that were for certain assemblies at certain times in history. These were not preserved by God to be set forth as timeless and changeless truths for all mankind. I know of no assembly of believes that adhere to a strict 'women in silence" doctrine. If we believe this is what Paul is teaching in 1Cor. 14:34-35 then women cannot be vocal at all in church. Not to sing, to testify, nothing. We cannot just pull out certain areas of speaking (preaching, teaching, etc.) and apply them here. If he meant keep silent. Then silent women must be. Does this line up with the multitude of other scriptures where women spoke about God and were used of God? For me it does not. Even in the Old Testament women could choose to: be a Nazarite (Num 6:2), be a prophetess (many instances Old and New Testament), Deborah was a Judge of Israel. Surely she had some authority over men in that position. Priscilla and her husband Aquila taught the man Apollos (Act 18:27). What is this? Can a woman teach one man and not two?. Is it the number of men present when she speaks or her geographical location at the time? Can she only expound and give what she has received from God only in her home? I am still learning and coming to an understanding of this and other, teachings. I am teachable and want with my whole heart to know the truth as God gives it. So I do not write this as an absolute. I would like some responses here to weigh out. For those who would wonder why I do not ask my own husband. We have studied this together and are of the same opinion and have the same questions. He has read this note and is interested as I am in the response we will receive. |
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2 | Women in Ministry | 1 Tim 2:12 | jcsav | 145925 | ||
Yayatheresa, Timothy is clearly speaking of the Husband and Wife and not all men in verse 2:13-15. The same can be said for 1cor 14:34-35. The "Law" spoken of has to be Husband and Wife. There is no Law, that a woman must be in subjection to all men (but only to her own husband). That came about though tradition and not by the Word of God. And remember, Jesus Christ is head of them both. |
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3 | Women in Ministry | 1 Tim 2:12 | Searcher56 | 146221 | ||
It is not a matter of being subject ... it is improper for a woman to speak in church (1 Cor 14:35) | ||||||
4 | Women in Ministry | 1 Tim 2:12 | jcsav | 146246 | ||
If that is all that it mean. Then why did Paul say in verse 34, ....as also saith the law? And why do he tell her to ask her husband at home? Why not ask the men. Or the Pastor? |
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5 | Women in Ministry | 1 Tim 2:12 | Searcher56 | 146258 | ||
Husband means husband | ||||||
6 | Women in Ministry | 1 Tim 2:12 | jcsav | 146287 | ||
That's what I thought. | ||||||