Results 1 - 6 of 6
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Is the Christian under Law? | Ex 1:1 | Reformer Joe | 12854 | ||
Bill: Okay...guess this has to be a two-parter! First of all, you didn't address my complete quotation from Matthew 5, the very words of Christ Himself. We have to understand Paul's teaching on law by reconciling it to Christ's claim that he did not come to abolish the Law, but to fulfill it. The Law still exists in a moral sense. It is the sacrificial and ceremonial aspects of the law which were fulfilled in Christ's life, death, and resurrection. God's morality still exists as a standard for believers to attain to. The fact is not that the law has disappeared, but that Christ fulfilled all the requirements of God's moral law in himself. Those who are not in Christ are still under the requirements of God's morality (and still fall short -- Romans 3:23). I never argued that we are saved (i.e. justified) by law. No one ever was (Romans 3:20,28-30). What I am arguing is that the holiness exemplified by the moral aspects of the Law is definitely is the goal of our progressive sanctification. Let me address each of the points you made (and by the way, the three contentions are not mine, but those of John Calvin): You wrote: "The Holy Spirit now convicts the believer of sin and points us to Christ as sufficient - not the Law." Yes, the Holy Spirit convicts the believer of sin, but the Holy Spirit acts in concert with His revealed word. Therefore, the Holy Spirit employs Scripture (i.e. law) that He inspired to convict people of sin, just as he did at our coversion (Romans 3:20). Note that I am not saying that the ceremonial aspects of the Law are needed today, but God's moral commandments are still in effect and reveal the holy character of God and what righteousness is. (Romans 7:12). The fact that we cannot keep them without the empowerment of the Holy Spirit does not mean that God doesn't care whether we are moral or not. More in the next episode... --Joe! |
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2 | Is the Christian under Law? | Ex 1:1 | fatherchuck | 12866 | ||
What Scriptures did God use to convict Adam of sin? Cain? Abraham? Isaac? Jacob? The purpose of the Law is to reveal the sin that is in us, to show us our need to be saved from the penalty of breaking the law, not to set up a standard whereby we measure our growth in our righteousness. That was the mistake of the jews, that they used the law to establish their own righteousness rather than recognize the sin in them. The result was that their relationship was with a dead law rather than the Living God. |
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3 | Is the Christian under Law? | Ex 1:1 | Reformer Joe | 12867 | ||
Adam's first sin was the transgression of God's law to him (Genesis 2:16-17). It is clear from verses 3:11,17 that God referred back to his commandment in his judgment of Adam. Cain, likewise, apparently knew the sacrifice guidelines and violated them (Genesis 4:5-7). God had clearly revealed His will to the patriarchs as well, even though the Mosaic Law had not been established. The book of Romans even teaches us that for Gentiles such as myself, who were never subjects of the Mosaic Covenant with its Law, had the moral requirements of that Law written upon my heart (Romans 2:12-15). I was never "under the Law." However, had God not regenerated me, I would have "died without law," because God's larger covenant of works was established with Adam and his posterity, and I like all men (save Christ) have violated that covenant. The error of the Pharisees was not embracing the Law with all their hearts, but rather superficially keeping the outward trappings of the Law while their hearts were wicked and prideful. That is the whole theme of Jesus' discourse in Matthew 5 chastizing the "righteousness" of the Pharisees in only going as far as the letter of the Law dictated. Seriously, can one really look at the Pharisees' attitude toward law in the four Gospels and say that it was law's fault? Jesus condemns the Pharisees not for OBEYING the Law, but rather for not embracing the higher morality behind the Law, using several examples from the Law and indicating that God's standard of righteousness is far higher than what the Pharisees demonstrate (Matthew 5:17-48). The moral law is not unrighteous (Romans 7:7-12) nor is it "dead." Try reading Psalm 119 and witness in those 176 verses how useful, how vivid and alive the law was to King David, who was a partaker of the Holy Spirit just as we are (1 Samuel 16:13). The difference between David's embracing of God's moral law and the manner of the Pharisees toward the same law clearly demonstrates that it is not law that is dead, but the hearts of those who attempt to use it as a basis for their own works righteousness. The Spirit uses law to convict us of our sin (even after we are saved), to show us God's perfection and holiness (i.e the goal of our sanctification), and gives us the clear boundaries of His moral will: "Oh, how I love your law! It is my meditation all the day. You, through your commandments, make me wiser than my enemies; For they are ever with me... Through Your precepts I get understanding; Therefore I hate every false way." --Psalm 119:97-98,104 (NKJV) Q: What is sin? A: Sin is any want of conformity unto or transgression of the law of God. --Westminster Shorter Catechism, Question 14 --Joe! |
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4 | Is the Christian under Law? | Ex 1:1 | fatherchuck | 12926 | ||
The error of the pharisees wasn't that they didn't embrace the higher morality of the law but that they were spiritually dead. Rom 3:9-20. The reason that David embraced the law was because he was a partaker of the Holy Spirit. Is ones relationship with God established through the law, or is the law established through ones relationship with God? |
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5 | Is the Christian under Law? | Ex 1:1 | Reformer Joe | 12944 | ||
I agree with your statement about both the Pharisees and of David. The spiritual deadness of the Pharisees found its expression through superficial and hypocritical adherence to the letter of the Law. I am not sure what you mean by "established," but we agree that the Holy Spirit caused David to embrace and love God's moral law rather than to despise it and consider it irrelevant to someone who has the Spirit. --Joe! |
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6 | Is the Christian under Law? | Ex 1:1 | fatherchuck | 12946 | ||
Good! I thought we were more in agreement than not. By establish I meant that Gods law becomes my hearts rule/guide because it is the expression of God's heart. And because His Spirit, the HOLY Spirit resides in my spirit! | ||||||