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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Does God endorse polygamy? | 1 Kin 11:3 | Swordman007 | 68537 | ||
The case in point was Hebrew, not Greek. I do not have to "think" that Greek can sometimes be nonspecific in relation to plural or singular meaning. If Paul had said "teach thy son how to treat women," then one could follow the antipolygamist's style of reasoning and scriptural reasoning and say that Paul was therefore saying that it is God's ideal that a man have only "one" son since he did not say "sons", or that only ONE "son" should be taught how to treat a woman. As rediculous as this may sound, this is exactly what antipolygamists are doing when they point to the seemingly singular translation of an alleged "key" word. They are building a case upon nothing but air. Jesus' and Paul's words were never meant to be twisted into whatever meaning antipolygamists would choose to force upon the context. When Jesus and Paul were addressing divorce, then the antipolygamist has no right to force meaning into their words than what the context allows for. Doing so is an exercise in dishonesty. Thanks Don |
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2 | Does God endorse polygamy? | 1 Kin 11:3 | Morant61 | 68545 | ||
Greetings Don! Just so that I'm clear my friend, you did say that both Hebrew and Greek were not always clear about plural or singular number! :-) Yet, the point still remains that you are doing what you accuse the 'antipolygamists' of doing. There is not a single verse of Scripture which commands polygamist marriage or which condones such marriages. Yet, you argue that they are morally acceptable. I do have a couple of quick questions for you. It is true that there is not any Scripture which plainly states "you can only marry one woman", but it is also true that there isn't any Scripture which plainly states "you can marry multiple woman" either. However, which one makes more sense of the Biblical evidence? Consider the following example: 1) Mark 10:6-9 speaks of marriage and verse 8 specifically says 'the two will become one flesh'. Does polygomoy or monogomy make more sense of this passage? Frankly, I would have to see a clear statement in Scripture before I could agree with your position my friend! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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