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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Does God endorse polygamy? | 1 Kin 11:3 | Swordman007 | 68441 | ||
Thank you, Steve, for your comments. I think that if you read Mark 10:4-5, you will see that Jesus clearly identified the fact that it was Moses who allowed for divorce, not the Lord Himself. God took no credit for allowing divorce. However, the Lord made no mention of his displeasure with a man having more than one wife. As for God's Law making governing provision for a man to have more than one wife, all you have to do is look up Ex. 21:10. Also, sir, I did not emphatically state that Adam had more than one wife. Please read my statements for what they say. I said that Adam MAY have had more than one wife. I CLEARLY stated that we cannot know for sure one way or the other. There is no integrity in twisting my words into what they clearly did not say. I do not have the reference before me of where the Lord declared Judah and Israel to be His wives in the midst of their being a split nation, but that is beside the point. God still utilized langauge that clearly portrayed a plurality of wives in reference to His own posession of these two distinct nations (tribes or whatever you want to call them). Whether they were physically split or not, the Hebrew language itself still carries great meaning in this regard. There is no less integrity in pointing this out than there is Adam's having been given one wife. We still see that the Lord had given king David several of his already plural wives. This clearly indicates that the Lord is not so set against a plurality of wives as many people would like to think. I would agree that a plruality of wives is certainly not for all men. I just wanted to make that clear before moving on. The argument of Adam having been given one wife as a sign of God's perfect will for ALL mankind to have only one wife is just as much a "red herring" as the power and the garden argument. You have simply caught on to the direction of my arguement. I was making that very point in reference to Adam's having been given only one wife. "So what?" is a general overview of what I was trying to say in all that. I only wish others would be as discerning as you have been. Read my other posting in reference to the Lexicons and "mia". As for singular or plural, the Hebrew and Greek languages are not always so specific as the English language in this regard. Many times the plurality or the singularity of a word is left to the mercy of the bias of the translators. Standing solely upon the English translation of "wife" versus "wives" is generally an exercise in futility where the original languages are concerned. My two Th.D. friends knew this, so they knew better than to rest their case upon this very weakness. Thanks Steve. Don |
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2 | Does God endorse polygamy? | 1 Kin 11:3 | Morant61 | 68474 | ||
Greetings Don! You wrote: " As for singular or plural, the Hebrew and Greek languages are not always so specific as the English language in this regard. Many times the plurality or the singularity of a word is left to the mercy of the bias of the translators. Standing solely upon the English translation of "wife" versus "wives" is generally an exercise in futility where the original languages are concerned" However, this simply is not true. Greek is very precise when it comes to singular and plural forms. The forms are very specific and very clear. What makes you think that Greek is not clear on this? Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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3 | Does God endorse polygamy? | 1 Kin 11:3 | Swordman007 | 68537 | ||
The case in point was Hebrew, not Greek. I do not have to "think" that Greek can sometimes be nonspecific in relation to plural or singular meaning. If Paul had said "teach thy son how to treat women," then one could follow the antipolygamist's style of reasoning and scriptural reasoning and say that Paul was therefore saying that it is God's ideal that a man have only "one" son since he did not say "sons", or that only ONE "son" should be taught how to treat a woman. As rediculous as this may sound, this is exactly what antipolygamists are doing when they point to the seemingly singular translation of an alleged "key" word. They are building a case upon nothing but air. Jesus' and Paul's words were never meant to be twisted into whatever meaning antipolygamists would choose to force upon the context. When Jesus and Paul were addressing divorce, then the antipolygamist has no right to force meaning into their words than what the context allows for. Doing so is an exercise in dishonesty. Thanks Don |
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4 | Does God endorse polygamy? | 1 Kin 11:3 | Morant61 | 68545 | ||
Greetings Don! Just so that I'm clear my friend, you did say that both Hebrew and Greek were not always clear about plural or singular number! :-) Yet, the point still remains that you are doing what you accuse the 'antipolygamists' of doing. There is not a single verse of Scripture which commands polygamist marriage or which condones such marriages. Yet, you argue that they are morally acceptable. I do have a couple of quick questions for you. It is true that there is not any Scripture which plainly states "you can only marry one woman", but it is also true that there isn't any Scripture which plainly states "you can marry multiple woman" either. However, which one makes more sense of the Biblical evidence? Consider the following example: 1) Mark 10:6-9 speaks of marriage and verse 8 specifically says 'the two will become one flesh'. Does polygomoy or monogomy make more sense of this passage? Frankly, I would have to see a clear statement in Scripture before I could agree with your position my friend! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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