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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Does God endorse polygamy? | 1 Kin 11:3 | mark d seyler | 175525 | ||
Hi Hugh, Considering the straightfoward aspect of Gen. 2:24 "he shall cleave to his wife", I would look for very specific Scriptures before I sought to modify that directive. "He" and "wife" are both singular, therefore I do not think God is saying, for instance, "they shall cleave to their wives". With this as a starting point, we work our way through Scripture, looking at all God has to say about marraige. When we come to Joash, we read that he had two wives, and that he is declared to have done everything right. So unless the Bible says one way or the other, if I would to make an assumption of whether these wives were simultaneous or not, I will refer to God's first directive on marraige, that it is between on man and one woman, and I would assume that Joash was married to one at a time, and that his first wife died, or left him through no fault of his own, or some such. There were many in the Bible who were married to more than one woman at once, but it is not said of them that they did everything right. I would maintain that the passage lacks any information regarding the timing of his wives. Where the Scripture is silent, we should not add to it to support our view. You mention Lot. He is declared righteous, but not because his works were all righteous. I hope this clarifies how I look at these Scriptures. Love in Christ, Mark |
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2 | Does God endorse polygamy? | 1 Kin 11:3 | Hugh McBryde | 175570 | ||
Mark, Without words like ONLY, the uses of the singular is unremarkable. Many times for instance, one of David's wives is refered to in the singular as "his wife", it hardly means he doesn't have others. Similar statements are made about sons. God goes so far as to use "only" with reference to Jesus. Another such reference is made to a Judge's daughter, designating her his only child, and Uriah's wife is mentioned as his ONLY wife by Nathan the Prophet. Furthermore, I think I have pointed out that the Hebrew word for "wife" ('ishshah) is also the Hebrew word for wives. It is also translated elsewhere to mean "Marry" or even as the word for joining MULTLIPLE temple curtains together or describing the multiple loops for the temple curtains. I mentioned Lot because following your logic, of not adding on this narrow a level, where the whole thrust of the passage seems to go in one direction, yet you go another, that sex with your own children had not been prohibitted at the time of Lot. Lot is said to be righteous. Lot fathers sons through his own daughters, these nations go on to become neighbors to Israel right along with Edom (Esau). Since scripture does not mention this as wrong at that time, since Genesis 2:24 does NOT describe a monogamy of necessity, and since Adam COULD have taken a daughter of his own, just as Lot did, why do we suppose that he didn't? All I'm asking for his is a little honesty. I don't think Adam bedded one of his daughters, but I also don't think that Joash was given wives sequentially, because it doesn't say that. Joash would have procured, based on scriptural precident, his own wives after the first one (or in this case two) that were given to him. Hugh |
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