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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Does God endorse polygamy? | 1 Kin 11:3 | Hugh McBryde | 175563 | ||
Steve, no, scripture defines adultery, not VINES. The use of a greek word that would be unisex in their culture to make a doctrine is a bit of a stretch. You suggest that all potential meanings or applications or a word were intended when the author used it. This defies imagination. For instance, the english word "Cleave" can mean to "stick to", or to "cut apart". It would take a philology expert on C.S. Lewis's level to explain why that is, and perhaps he could not. When scripture says Cleave do you think it meant to "take your war axe and split the helm of your enemy"? All the definitions of adultery are contained in the Old Testament. The use of a greek word that COULD mean the "sexual infidelity of a man with regard to his wife", a concept that DIDN'T EXIST in the Hebrew Language or culture does not a doctrine make. Hugh |
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2 | Does God endorse polygamy? | 1 Kin 11:3 | mark d seyler | 175565 | ||
Where in the world do you get this idea that the Hebrews had no concept of marital fidelity to one's wife??? Mark |
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3 | Does God endorse polygamy? | 1 Kin 11:3 | Hugh McBryde | 175572 | ||
I dunno Mark, perhaps you should show me where it is that the had a concept of male marital fidelity being exclusive sexual fidelity to one wife, you can't. | ||||||