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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Does God endorse polygamy? | 1 Kin 11:3 | srbaegon | 175558 | ||
Hello Hugh, From Vine's Expository Dictionary of New Testament Words: A1. Adulterer (-ess), Adulterous, Adultery [Noun] moichos denotes one "who has unlawful intercourse with the spouse of another," Luke 18:11; 1 Cor 6:9; Heb 13:4. As to James 4:4, see below. A2. Adulterer (-ess), Adulterous, Adultery [Noun] moichalis "an adulteress," is used (a) in the natural sense, 2 Pet 2:14; Rom 7:3; (b) in the spiritual sense, James 4:4; here the RV rightly omits the word "adulterers." It was added by a copyist. As in Israel the breach of their relationship with God through their idolatry, was described as "adultery" or "harlotry" (e.g., Ezek 16:15ff; Ezek 23:43), so believers who cultivate friendship with the world, thus breaking their spiritual union with Christ, are spiritual "adulteresses," having been spiritually united to Him as wife to husband, Rom 7:4. It is used adjectivally to describe the Jewish people in transferring their affections from God, Matt 12:39; Matt 16:4; Mark 8:38. In 2 Pet 2:14, the lit. translation is "full of an adulteress" (RV, marg.). A3. Adulterer (-ess), Adulterous, Adultery [Noun] moicheia "adultery," is found in Matt 15:19; Mark 7:21; John 8:3 (AV only). B1. Adulterer (-ess), Adulterous, Adultery [Verb] moichao used in the Middle Voice in the NT, is said of men in Matt 5:32; Matt 19:9; Mark 10:11; of women in Mark 10:10. B2. Adulterer (-ess), Adulterous, Adultery [Verb] moicheuo is used in Matt 5:27,28,32 (in Matt 5:32 some texts have moichao); Matt 19:18; Mark 10:19; Luke 16:18; Luke 18:20; John 8:4; Rom 2:22; Rom 13:9; James 2:11; in Rev 2:22, metaphorically, of those who are by a Jezebel's solicitations drawn away to idolatry. Steve |
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2 | Does God endorse polygamy? | 1 Kin 11:3 | Hugh McBryde | 175563 | ||
Steve, no, scripture defines adultery, not VINES. The use of a greek word that would be unisex in their culture to make a doctrine is a bit of a stretch. You suggest that all potential meanings or applications or a word were intended when the author used it. This defies imagination. For instance, the english word "Cleave" can mean to "stick to", or to "cut apart". It would take a philology expert on C.S. Lewis's level to explain why that is, and perhaps he could not. When scripture says Cleave do you think it meant to "take your war axe and split the helm of your enemy"? All the definitions of adultery are contained in the Old Testament. The use of a greek word that COULD mean the "sexual infidelity of a man with regard to his wife", a concept that DIDN'T EXIST in the Hebrew Language or culture does not a doctrine make. Hugh |
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3 | Does God endorse polygamy? | 1 Kin 11:3 | mark d seyler | 175565 | ||
Where in the world do you get this idea that the Hebrews had no concept of marital fidelity to one's wife??? Mark |
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4 | Does God endorse polygamy? | 1 Kin 11:3 | Hugh McBryde | 175572 | ||
I dunno Mark, perhaps you should show me where it is that the had a concept of male marital fidelity being exclusive sexual fidelity to one wife, you can't. | ||||||