Results 1 - 6 of 6
|
|
|||||
Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Does God endorse polygamy? | 1 Kin 11:3 | mark d seyler | 175562 | ||
Hi Hugh, There are two things I'd like to address here. The first is that Jesus demonstrated an equally narrow interpretation of Genesis 2:24. In Matthew 19:5, Jesus quotes this passage, clearly using the singular word forms. Man, woman, both are singular, and on top of that, He says, "the TWO shall become one flesh." Now, regarding what we can and can't conclude about people's marital states as recorded in the Bible. We know that Joseph married Mary. The Bible tells us that. But the Bible does not tell us that Joseph married anyone else. It does not tell us that he didn't marry anyone else. But what does that tell us? That Joseph married Mary. To assume anything beyond that is just that - an assumption. When I say that we shouldn't assume one way or the other about what is not specifically stated about Joash, this does not mean that I am claiming we Should assume things not stated about others. It is most certainly not the logical consequence of my view. Love in Christ, Mark |
||||||
2 | Does God endorse polygamy? | 1 Kin 11:3 | Hugh McBryde | 175568 | ||
Mark, This is now becoming too circular. You rely on what you suppose was the meaning contained in Genesis to help define what Jesus is saying in Matthew, and they you look back to Genesis with the support of Jesus remarks, which you essentially created a meaning for by importing Genesis into Matthew. The proof is simple. FIRST God has Genesis written, and in it, he says that a man and woman become one flesh. You assume that "One Flesh" is monogamy, yet later God says in his law, using precisely the same word for wife that he does in Genesis, that a man can have two. Since you are "one flesh" with your wife, and since you can have two, YOU MUST BE ONE FLESH WITH BOTH. This completely and finally explodes any notion WHATSOEVER that the condition known as "One Flesh" contains any information about monogamy, other than the fact that people who are in a monogamy are "One Flesh". It also says clearly that people who are in a Polygyny are "One Flesh". Thus nothing about the condition which is said to exist between married persons necessarily implies monogamy. Next, the Bible does not tell us that Joseph DIDN'T have other wives, just as it doesn't tell us that one of Joash's wives DIED. Yet you wrangle it out of the passage so as to avoid the most obvious of meanings. Joash got his two wives nearly or exactly at the same time. Scriptural precident here. Arranged marriages were first marriages for men. We have the example of David deciding to take his other wives, though Michal was arranged for him. Abigail he merely acquired. NORMALLY, Joash would have taken his first wife by arrangement of others, the "wife of his youth", his second, had they not been arranged for him by others, on his own, yet it said that Joash arranged for both. This suggests not thinly, but strongly that they were given to him at the same time. You say that I am making assumptions where scripture says nothing in a context that nearly all would agree with me on, namely that the less likely meaning you suggest is the actual meaning, yet when I point out that no mention exists of Joseph NOT having other wives, that's obviously because he did not. I'm willing to look at it that way, but you reverse field on me in your treatment of Joash's situation, saying that concurrent language is not necessarily concurrent, therefore not concurrent, and that though no mention is made of a young man's first wife dying, and being replace, that must have been what happened. Hugh |
||||||
3 | Does God endorse polygamy? | 1 Kin 11:3 | srbaegon | 175569 | ||
Hello Hugh, Mark is consistent. He is acknowledging that Jesus is the one who gave the word of truth (Bible) and is therefore qualified to explain its content. He does so by saying the Genesis account specifies one man and one woman. It's quite simple, you see. Steve |
||||||
4 | Does God endorse polygamy? | 1 Kin 11:3 | Hugh McBryde | 175571 | ||
Yes, I do, it's clear that if you gain a large number of votes for a position being clear, it's clear. Jesus does not say that the Genesis account specifies one man and one woman for the purpose of upholding monogamy as the prefered form of marriage, Jesus makes the point in Matthew 19, that the thing that was NOT SO in the beginning, was marriages breaking up. He's making the point that Adam and Eve's bond was life long, not monogamous. |
||||||
5 | Does God endorse polygamy? | 1 Kin 11:3 | srbaegon | 175581 | ||
Hello Hugh, And the marriage referred to as not breaking up consisted of one man and one woman. And you have never answered my question--Do you believe that whatever the Bible does not specifically condemn is permissible to the believer? How many times and in how many ways must this be asked before you give a response? Steve |
||||||
6 | Does God endorse polygamy? | 1 Kin 11:3 | Face | 175679 | ||
Hugh is pointing out that the specific area Jesus was addressing was DIVORCE. That in the beginning DIVORCE was not so. What Hugh is pointing out is that Scripture had plenty of places to condemn polygyny, and did not. Had David divorced one of his wives, then he would have cause her to commit adultery, and thus broken the "from the beginning it was not so" I suppose somehow in all the self-righteousness of churchdom so many people feel so good now that they have made themselves better than men Scripture calls righteous. I suspect that's really what this is all about. Elevating one'self to somehow be better than someone Scripture called righteous figuring that if they are more righteous than David, Abraham, Gideon and Joash, that then they are guaranteed a place in heaven. Sure...... that'll work..... |
||||||