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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Does God endorse polygamy? | 1 Kin 11:3 | mark d seyler | 175523 | ||
Hi Hugh, That's very interesting! Do you know if the Scripture anywhere states that Joash was married simultaneously to these two women? Rather than, say, he had married one, she died, then he married the next? Love in Christ, Mark |
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2 | Does God endorse polygamy? | 1 Kin 11:3 | Hugh McBryde | 175524 | ||
I think you're grasping. There is no reason to suppose that these two wives were given sequentially. But if you're going to argue this line of reasoning, then it's fair to say that none of the persons you may suppose to be monogamous in Scripture can be said to be monogamous, unless it is specificly stated that they were. The verbage would have to be "Adam took only Eve for a wife all his days and had no relations with any of his offspring such as righteous Lot did." One cannot now suppose that Joseph, husband of Mary was monogamous, all claims that Jesus was never married must be swept aside as baseless. Many of the Kings of Israel and Judah had marriages to wives that coincided with one another. It would be more likely that it would say, "Joash took two wives from Jehoiada the Priest, one died and to comfort him, Jehoiada found him another, and thus Joash was comforted." The whole structure of the passage nearly rules out any possibility that these were consecutive wives, they were simoultaneous. | ||||||
3 | Does God endorse polygamy? | 1 Kin 11:3 | mark d seyler | 175525 | ||
Hi Hugh, Considering the straightfoward aspect of Gen. 2:24 "he shall cleave to his wife", I would look for very specific Scriptures before I sought to modify that directive. "He" and "wife" are both singular, therefore I do not think God is saying, for instance, "they shall cleave to their wives". With this as a starting point, we work our way through Scripture, looking at all God has to say about marraige. When we come to Joash, we read that he had two wives, and that he is declared to have done everything right. So unless the Bible says one way or the other, if I would to make an assumption of whether these wives were simultaneous or not, I will refer to God's first directive on marraige, that it is between on man and one woman, and I would assume that Joash was married to one at a time, and that his first wife died, or left him through no fault of his own, or some such. There were many in the Bible who were married to more than one woman at once, but it is not said of them that they did everything right. I would maintain that the passage lacks any information regarding the timing of his wives. Where the Scripture is silent, we should not add to it to support our view. You mention Lot. He is declared righteous, but not because his works were all righteous. I hope this clarifies how I look at these Scriptures. Love in Christ, Mark |
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4 | Does God endorse polygamy? | 1 Kin 11:3 | Hugh McBryde | 175530 | ||
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