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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Does God endorse polygamy? | 1 Kin 11:3 | One | 68993 | ||
Don please respond to this: 1. If we use this verse (1 Kings 11:3) to condone polygamy then couldn’t we use it to condone having concubines? So could I have several wives and sitll have several women on the side I am not married to yet have relations with them? I don’t think any of us would argue that point, do we? 2. The fact that God allowed things He didn’t approve of in the OT is plain, look at 1 Sam 8:5 and1 Sam 10:19. GOD never wanted a king, yet he gave them one. To say that God approved of it is to say God wanted them to reject Him and that makes no sense. Now you might say, God doesn’t change.” and I would say your correct. However did God allow a king because He had changed or His people had changed? So why would God do this, I don’t always know the answer to that. I do know He does give His people over to do wrong. Rom 1:24 Therefore God gave them over in the lusts of their hearts to impurity, so that their bodies would be dishonored among them. 3. If God approved of everything in the OT then what is the purpose of Acts 17:30 "Therefore having overlooked the times of ignorance, God is now declaring to men that all people everywhere should repent…” 4. Yes I do believe Adams on wife was used as an example of monogamy look what Jesus said, Matt 19:5 and said, 'FOR THIS REASON A MAN SHALL LEAVE HIS FATHER AND MOTHER AND BE JOINED TO HIS WIFE, AND THE TWO SHALL BECOME ONE FLESH'? "So they are no longer two, but one flesh. What therefore God has joined together, let no man separate." Paul says the same thing. Note both say the two shall become one flesh not the 700 and 300 concubines. |
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2 | Does God endorse polygamy? | 1 Kin 11:3 | Swordman007 | 69010 | ||
1) This is a good point to discuss (concubinage), but I really would rather not get into this one too deeply since the other is still an ongoing debate. However, I will say that even though the cultures of the Old Testament DID differentiate between wives and concubines, this was mainly done within the leadership of a nation or a tribe rather than among the common people. For all intents and purposes, a concubine was STILL the wife of the king (for example) since she was to be sexually and emotionally committed only to the king, just like a wife, but was not "officially designated" as his wife due to political expediency. This allowed the king to have multiple wives without there being problems with multiple queens within the realm fighting over whose child should ascend to the throne. This maneuver was not always realistically successful, but it did work in principal. 2) The issue of God appointing a king against His will is made quite plain within the text. However, there is not even the slightest intimation that God disapproved of a man having more than one wife. The Lord made governing provision for a man to have more than one wife. He governed it by telling the husband that he will not be allowed to instigate preferential treatment (provision) of the second wife over the first wife. If God disapproved of a man having more than one wife, He certainly did not speak as loudly as He did concerning the people having a king in place of His theocractic system of His Law and the judges. His alleged disapproval of polygamy is like silent thunder. 3) I never said that God approved of everything in the O.T. What was sin then is sin now, and what is sin now was sin then. Not one "jot nor tittle" has changed in the foundation of God's moral absolutes with the coming of Christ. God called His people to repentence MANY times throughout history. 4) This application of reason basically is a declaration that David was not one flesh with his many wives, as well as all the other patriarchs who practiced polygamy. Do you not remember where the word of God clearly delcared that a man who lays with a whore has become one flesh with her? It was nowhere mentioned within that context that he was considered one flesh with that whore ONLY if he were not married already. When a man lays with a woman, whether she is his wife or not, he is has become "one flesh" with her. In Christ Jesus Don Dean |
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