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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Does God endorse polygamy? | 1 Kin 11:3 | Swordman007 | 68509 | ||
Greetings. I will not be able to address all of your message since there are so many people responding to all this, and since much of it would be a repeat of the other postings I have already made. I cannot possibly keep up with it all. After all, I am just one man against all these other men who refuse to read the scriptures for what they say. However, I will say that relying upon the weakness of "singular" versus "plural" in the English translations of the Bible is a common trap many people fall into who do not know Hebrew or Greek. Those of us who know the languages are well aware of the fact that the Hebrew and Greek are not always so specific where singular or plural is concerned. After all, the Hebrew language does not have a word that expresses what we call "eternity". This creates a problem that allows the translators to incorporate their own personal bias. For instance, when Proverbs instructs a man to raise his "son" (singular) in the ways of righteousness, does that mean that we are all limited to having only one son, or that only one of our sons is to be raised in the ways of righteousness? I think you may now see the weakness of the arguement you have presented. In Christ Jesus Don |
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2 | Does God endorse polygamy? | 1 Kin 11:3 | Reformer Joe | 68514 | ||
"I think you may now see the weakness of the arguement you have presented." Not really, since all of the examples of "wife" (singular) I gave were in the New Testament, and you referred to Hebrew in your so-called "refutation." You keep saying that Hebrew and Greek are not number-specific in their nouns, but you have offered no support for such a statement with regard to Koine Greek. You also wrote: "For instance, when Proverbs instructs a man to raise his "son" (singular) in the ways of righteousness, does that mean that we are all limited to having only one son, or that only one of our sons is to be raised in the ways of righteousness?" No, but when Paul says that each man should have his own wife, and each wife her own husband (a reciprocal statement), that is putting a little more boundary on it than the verse you cite above. Either that, or polyandry is indeed implied in 1 Corinthians as a suitable option. The "I don't have time to respond" response kind of hurts my feelings, too, since your other posts indeed did NOT address the questions I raised (else I would not have raised them). Since you have written such long and flowing essays in the last several days on the subject, couldn't you do the same for little ol' me? I really would like you to address the specific substance of what I said, addressing the verses and points themselves rather than speaking in generalities. After all, if you have outwitted all of those big, bad, nationally-known Th.D.'s, a commoner like me should be quick work, right? :) --Joe! |
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