Subject: Is God subject to change? |
Bible Note: Greetings John! All right, let's look at the text and see what it says. There are three quick important points about the text though that have to be addressed first. 1) There is no main verb in v. 28 which says 'they did'. 2) Verse 28 is not a complete sentence. The sentence actually starts in v. 27. 3) The main verb in v. 27 is literally 'they were led together'. With these points in mind, here is my literal translation of the whole sentence (vv. 27 and 28). "For truely, Herod and Pontius Pilate (together with the nations and the people of Israel) were led together into this city, against Your Holy Child Jesus, whom You annointed, to do as much as Your and Your will forordained to be." This is about as literal a translation as one can get. Now, concerning your interpretation of this passage. I partially agree with you and partially disagree with you. Where I agree is that God had something which He forordained and it was going to occur regardless. Where I disagree is in the implication that God 'made' the people involved do what they did. The key to understanding this passage, at least to me, is found in the main verb - 'they were led together'. This passage does not say that God made them do what He ordain should occur. It says that He 'lead them together'. I think that this is what New Creature was trying to say in one of his previous post concerning God's foreknowledge. God knew that if these people were brought together at this point in time, in this particular circumstance, that they would kill Jesus. So, He brought them together because it was His will that Jesus die. Where I disagree with you is that there is nothing in the text which indicates that the actions of the people were dicated by Divine fiat. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |