Subject: Is God subject to change? |
Bible Note: Greetings John! :-) You wrote: "Therefore, we must take His proclamation, not as a prophecy, but, a warning!" But, what does the verse say? Jonah 3:4 - "...He proclaimed: 'Forty more days and Nineveh will be overturned.'" I don't see any 'if' in this verse! :-) What was God's intention? Jonah 3:10 - "When God saw what they did and how they turned from their evil ways, he had compassion and did not bring upon them the destruction he had threatened." Are we free to take any statement of Scripture that doesn't fit our theology and make it mean something else? You made the statement that God never changes His mind, and I posted about a dozen verses where Scripture says that God did change His mind, not just one! As far as God's foreknowlege goes, I have never denied that God knew what would occur. What I have denied is that God's stated intention was only a ruse designed to get them to repent. He said it, and He meant it. If there were an 'if' in the passage, I could agree with your take on the passage. But, there is no 'if'. If we start taking direct statements of Scripture and dening that they really mean what they say, then were will end up? Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |