Subject: Is God subject to change? |
Bible Note: Dear NC, I have copied a previous post and reposted below. The reason I have done this is because you did not address the passages,but, asked a question ans made a conclusion but did not tell me what the passages lead us to conclude. -------------------------------------------------- God is not the author of sin, but, He has ordained that the sinful acts of man (which He fore-ordained) work together for ultimate good. We see one example in the story of Joseph and his brothers: Gen 50:20 "As for you, you meant evil against me, but God meant it for good in order to bring about this present result, to preserve many people alive. Another in Is 10:5-7 "Woe to Assyria, the rod of My anger And the staff in whose hands is My indignation, I send it against a godless nation And commission it against the people of My fury To capture booty and to seize plunder, And to trample them down like mud in the streets.Yet it does not so intend, Nor does it plan so in its heart, But rather it is its purpose to destroy And to cut off many nations. From these verses we learn that God uses the wicked intentions of man for His own purpose. Acts 4:27,28 "For truly in this city there were gathered together against Your holy servant Jesus, whom You anointed, both Herod and Pontius Pilate, along with the Gentiles and the peoples of Israel, to do whatever Your hand and Your purpose predestined to occur. Those listed; Herod, Pontius Pilate, the Gentiles and the peoples of Israel, sought the death of Christ out of pure hatred, yet God was working underneath for the greatest good that the world will ever know. God Bless, John |