Subject: Is God subject to change? |
Bible Note: Dear Tim, Jon 3:4 Then Jonah began to go through the city one day's walk; and he cried out and said, "Yet forty days and Nineveh will be overthrown." I am well aware that God's proclamation was unconditional, that it did not include any conditions by which Niniveh might escape being overthrown. At the same time, we both believe that God knew they would repent and that He would grant them mercy. So, what was God's ultimate intention regading this people? Keep in mind the fact that an omniscient being never learns new information, as your interpretaion implies. God wrote the Bible for our edification. Therefore, He wrote it in such a way that we could comprehend it. Take for instance Jon 3:10 "When God saw their deeds," does that mean that the omniscient One looked down and discovered that they had changed their ways? Of couse not. If that was the case then He is not All-Knowing and "Open Theism" is correct in saying that God does not really know the future! "You made the statement that God never changes His mind, and I posted about a dozen verses where Scripture says that God did change His mind, not just one!" Orthodoxy depends on the harmonizing of ALL passages of Scripture. It' not an election or a ball game. :-) John |