Subject: translate OT "with respect to the NT" |
Bible Note: Correction. Makarios: In the first line of the following I've changed "interprets" to "translates" so that the corrected wording is: When anyone TRANSLATES an OT passage, emphasizing what is revealed in the NT while downplaying or ignoring altogether the historical context of the OT passage, does it result in a more literal rendering? Or is the result less literal? Grace to you, kalos |