Subject: translate OT "with respect to the NT" |
Bible Note: Kalos Aside from what the translators of the Net Bible feel or believe, Matthew when he wrote Matthew 1:23 and being a Hebrew must of understood Isaiah 7:14 to mean a virgin when he quoted it or else we have to assume he took literary liberties. I would think such liberties would have been cited by first century Christian Jews that had access to Matthews book. EdB |