Subject: translate OT "with respect to the NT" |
Bible Note: Greetings my friend! Good stuff, and great question! :-) To be most literal and accurate, the Hebrew word for "virgin" is actually "bethulah" (Gen. 24:16; Exodus 22:17; Lev. 21:3,13,14; Deut. 22:15,17,19,20,23,28, 32:25; Judges 11:37,38, 21:12; 2 Sam. 13:2,18; 1 Kings 1:2; 2 Kings 19:21; Esther 2:2,3,17,19; Psalm 45:14; Isaiah 23:4,12, 37:22, 47:1, 62:5; Jeremiah 14:17, 18:13, 31:4,13,21, 46:11; Lam. 1:4,15,18 2:10,13,21; Ezekiel 23:3,8; Joel 1:8; Amos 5:2, 8:13). But, in a few places, the Hebrew word "almah" is translated as 'virgin': Gen. 24:43; Exodus 2:8; Isaiah 7:14; Psalm 68:25; Proverbs 30:19; Song of Solomon 1:3, 6:8. So, using that example, I would say that: when anyone interprets an OT passage, emphasizing what is revealed in the NT while downplaying or ignoring altogether the historical context of the OT passage, then it would result in a less literal rendering, based on the above example. However, at the same time, I believe that there are a few passages in Isaiah that are 'dual references' which are prophecies that refer to two different things at the same time, even though the two things that are being referred to are not necessarily related, in and of themselves. Examples for such said 'dual references' are in Isaiah 7:14 and 14:12-17. As Isaiah 14:12-17 is a reference to both the king of Babylon and Lucifer, Isaiah 7:14 is both a reference to the 'young woman', who was betrothed to Isaiah (8:3), and also serves as a prophesy of the coming of the Messiah, fullfilled in Mary, who was the virgin who bore Christ. And I believe that "almah", in the instance of Isaiah 7:14, is special in this one instance of its use, because of its Messianic connotations. Now, does using 'virgin' in Isaiah 7:14 instead of 'young woman' compromise the reference to the 'young woman', who was betrothed to Isaiah (8:3)? Not necessarily. Now, should we change all usage of the Hebrew word 'almah' to "virgin" wherever the word 'almah' is found in Scripture? Not necessarily. But in this one instance, in Isaiah 7:14, I believe that 'almah' has a special and unique connotation in this single verse, simply because I believe that it refers to something much greater than that which is 'led on' initially by the text. Now, did Isaiah know that what he was inspired to write was also Messianic as well as applying to his own life? Perhaps. But the answer, resoundly, is answered by Matthew, who was inspired by the very same Holy Spirit, who referred to this very same verse in Matthew 1:23, using this verse in its ultimate fulfillment! :-) Therefore, I believe that Isaiah 7:14 would most accurately reflect its ultimate fulfillment in 'virgin', satisfying both references, even though it may be the only place in the entire Bible in which 'alma' (which means "young woman") will be rendered as 'virgin.' And that, my friend, is where I see the single 'triumph' of emphasizing what is revealed in the NT over the historical context of the OT, since the Holy Spirit cannot be placed in any context, except that of past, present, and future. :-) Blessings to you, Makarios |