Subject: translate OT "with respect to the NT" |
Bible Note: Hank I agree but I think the more conclusive evidence is. Matthew a Jew and probably at least knowledgeable in Hebrew believed Isaiah was talking about a "virgin" or he would have never quoted this verse clearly using the word virgin in his writing. Also Matthews peers of the day must have understood this verse the same way or surely they would have raised an issue with his use of the word virgin. Also if Isaiah 7:14 wasn't talking about a virgin then Matthew also can be accused of misquoting or modifying scripture to suit his purpose. That act alone would stand in conflict with our understanding of the scripture and how it was given to man. To me to believe that Matthew took literary license and changed a quote of the Old Testament to support a New Testament doctrine would say scripture was thus humanly manipulated and that would weaken the support of the doctrine that scripture was divinely inspired. EdB |