Subject: Is the first resurrection, the rapture? |
Bible Note: Greetings Sisterkath! Thanks for the response my friend! Now, on to John 1:1. I have had several years of college level training in Koine Greek. I have also had about 12 years of experience in actually translating the Greek New Testament. Why do I mention this? Simply this, I know from both training and experience that the arguments used by the JW?s concerning John 1:1 are a mixture of truth and lie designed to hide the fact that John says that Jesus is God. There is significance to the fact that ?theos? does not have a definite article. But, the significance is not that ?theos? thus becomes an adjective. Allow me to demonstrate a number of times in the New Testament where ?theos? is used without an article, yet remains a noun. 1) Lk. 20:38 says, ?He is not the God of the dead??. Yet, ?theos? has no definite article. 2) Rom. 8:33 says, ??It is God who justifies?. Yet, ?theos? has no definite article. 3) 1 Cor. 8:4 says, ??that there is no God but one?. Yet, ?theos? has no definite article. 4) 2 Cor. 1:21 says, ??and God anointed us?. Yet, ?theos? has no definite article. 5) Others include: 2 Cor. 5:5, 2 Cor. 5:19, Gal. 6:7, Eph. 4:6, Phil. 2:13, 1 Thess. 2:5, 2 Thess. 2:16, 1 Tim. 2:5, and Rev. 21:7. These are just the examples where ?theos? is in the nominative case. There are other examples involving other cases. Now, check out your NWT and see if any of these verses translates the anarthrous ?theos? as ?divine? or ?a god?. The significance of the anarthrous ?theos? in John 1:1 is very simple. If both ?theos? and ?logos? had the definite article, John 1:1 would be saying that the ?logos? and ?theos? were the same person. Yet, John has already said in John 1:1 that the ?logos? was with God. The doctrine of the Trinity does not teach that Jesus is the same Person as the Father, or that the Father is the same Person as the Holy Spirit. What it does teach is that Jesus is fully God. The Father is fully God. And, the Holy Spirit is fully God. There are three distinct Persons, but only one God. This is why John does not use the definite article before ?theos? in John 1:1. Jesus is not the Father, but Jesus is fully God. Now, assuming for the moment that the JW?s are correct about their translation (which I reject), then Jesus is another God. Yet, in Is. 43:10, Jehovah Himself says that there are no other gods before Him, nor after Him. There are also other verses in Scripture which teach that there is only ONE God. Rom. 8:30 ? ?since there is only one God, who will justify the circumcised by faith and the uncircumcised through that same faith.? 1 Tim. 2:5 ? ?For there is one God and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus,? Eph. 4:6 ? ?one God and Father of all, who is over all and through all and in all.? So, the JW?s translation of John 1:1 in their NWT directly contradicts these Scriptures by teaching there are in fact at least two Gods. Which is true? Is there only One God, or are there more than one Gods? Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |