Subject: Is the first resurrection, the rapture? |
Bible Note: Greetings Sisterkath! When you mentioned the New English Translation, I am assuming that you were quoting a footnote from it on John 1:1. The quote? said: "John's thrology consistently drives toward the conclusion that Jesus, the incarnate Word, is just as much God as God the Father. This can be seen, for example, in John's use of the verb "worship" (proskunevw, praskunew) with Jesus as object in John 9:38, a word that elsewhere in John (4:21, 23,24) has only God the Father as its object. The construction in John 1:1c does not equate the Word with the person of God; rather it equates the essence of the Word with that of GOD." I think that you mis-understood the point of the quote which you quoted. Your quote is making the point that Jesus is God, not a god. First of all, it says: "...that Jesus, the incarnate Word, is just as much God as God the Father." How can Jesus be 'just as much God as God the Father' if He is not God Almighty? Is there another god who is equal to God Almighty? The Old Testament clearly teaches that there are no other gods. John 1:1 teaches a very powerful truth about Jesus, but it does so in a crescendo of statements. Rather than just coming out immediately and saying that Jesus is God, John builds his point with sucessive statements about the Word. He says: In the beginning was the Word. The reader is forced to consider the eternal nature of Jesus, that He did not come into existence in Mary's womb but has always existed since the beginning of creation. Then John says that in the beginning, the Word was WITH God. Now, the reader is forced to consider the special relationship which existed from all eternity between Jesus and God the Father. Finally, John say that in the beginning the Word was God. The Greek does not support 'a god', for two reasons. First of all, the text does not support such a reading grammatically. Secondly, to say that there is another 'god' is a direct contradiction of Scripture for Is. 43:10 says, "??You are my witnesses,? declares the LORD, ??and my servant whom I have chosen, so that you may know and believe me and understand that I am he. Before me no god was formed, nor will there be one after me." Note the irony that the self proclaimed witnesses of Jehovah expressly teach what Jehovah Himself said was not true - that there are other gods besides Him. But, to continue with your quote, the New English Translation footnote makes an accurate point when it says, "The construction in John 1:1c does not equate the Word with the person of God; rather it equates the essence of the Word with that of GOD." The doctrine of the Trinity teaches that there are three distinct Persons in the Godhead. The Son is not the Father, the Father is not the Holy Spirit. But, the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit are all the One God Jehovah. This is what the New English Translation is referring to in the footnote which you quoted. Finally, the New English Translation backs up it's affirmation that Jesus is God by pointing out that Jesus is mentioned throughout Gospel of John as being the object of worship. In short, the quote you quoted actually argues the exact opposite of what you intended. As my brother Hank pointed out to you, the NWT and all the other translations cannot both be right. Either Jesus is God or He is a god. You must decide which one is true. While you are doing that, consider this question. How, based on Is. 43:10, can Jesus be 'a god' if there are no other gods besides Jehovah? The answer should be obvious my friend. The JW's have mislead you with a false teaching, as can be proven on just the basis of Is. 43:10. Jehovah God said that there were no other gods, yet the self proclaimed Jehovah's Witnesses would tell you that Jesus was another god. Who is telling you the true? God in Is. 43:10 or the NWT? Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |