Subject: Dake's Annotated Bible |
Bible Note: In the Andes Interesting question and one that clearly displays a major problem about Word of Faith. They talk about things they do not understand, they further try to define God in human terms to human standards. God is the Creator we are the created, what we know of God is only what He has told us. Quite frankly I believe that is very limited information. We as humans have no real concept of the Godhead and how the Father, the Son and the Holy Spirit really interact. We only know what They have allowed us to see and only understand within our human understanding. Who says Jesus had to lay down omniscience, omnipotence, and omnipresence to be a perfect human? Would not God calling Him a Perfect Man be enough or does He have to meet some created “other” criteria. But for the sake of argument let’s using limited knowledge see what answers we can come up with. We do see some demonstration of these three attributes throughout Jesus’ life. How could they have occurred? Was it the fact the Jesus as perfect man was spiritually attuned to the Holy Spirit therefore He at times appears omniscience, omnipotence, and omnipresence? Or was Jesus in fact as Copeland stated so yielded to God that it appeared that Jesus was omniscience, omnipotence, and omnipresence? Or was Perfect man born “without” a sin nature so spiritually alive that he was able to accomplish things that we as humans term to be omniscience, omnipotence, and omnipresence? Lastly was Jesus in fact omniscience, omnipotence, and omnipresence but still a perfect man? I confess I don’t know the answer, I also don’t think anyone one else knows the answer therefore I would have to say Copeland would be outside the bounds of orthodoxy by making such a statement. EdB |