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NASB | Ephesians 4:9 (Now this expression, "He ascended," what does it mean except that He also had descended into the lower parts of the earth? |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | Ephesians 4:9 (Now this expression, "He ascended," what does it mean except that He also had previously descended [from the heights of heaven] into the lower parts of the earth? |
Subject: Jesus decended into hell? |
Bible Note: Greetings Dr. B! There are some serious problems with your identification of the Lazarus in Hades with the Lazarus of Bethany. First of all, they are called two different names. In John, Lazaurus (who was raised from the dead) is mentioned, while in Matthew, Simon the leper is mentioned. What evidence is there that these two men are the same? Secondly, John only says that Lazarus was at the dinner, while Matthew specifically says that the dinner was held at the house of Simon the leper. Thirdly, the 'so called parable' says that Simon was a beggar, but according to Matthew, the Simon mentioned owns a house. The word beggar refers to someone who could not own a house. As for your identification of Caiphas as the rich man, this is a major stretch. The text says that he had five brothers, not brother's in law. Here is what A. T. Robertson says about Mt. 26:6 ********** Mat 26:6 - In the house of Simon the leper . Evidently a man who had been healed of his leprosy by Jesus who gave the feast in honour of Jesus. All sorts of fantastic theories have arisen about it. Some even identify this Simon with the one in Luk_7:36., but Simon was a very common name and the details are very different. Some hold that it was Martha’s house because she served (Joh_12:2) and that Simon was either the father or husband of Martha, but Martha loved to serve and that proves nothing. Some identify Mary of Bethany with the sinful woman in Luke 7 and even with Mary Magdalene, both gratuitous and groundless propositions. For the proof that Mary of Bethany, Mary Magdalene, and the sinful woman of Luke 7 are all distinct see my Some Minor Characters in the New Testament. John (Joh_12:1) apparently locates the feast six days before the passover, while Mark (Mar_14:3) and Matthew (Mat_26:6) seem to place it on the Tuesday evening (Jewish Wednesday) just two days before the passover meal. It is possible that John anticipates the date and notes the feast at Bethany at this time because he does not refer to Bethany again. If not, the order of Mark must be followed. According to the order of Mark and Matthew, this feast took place at the very time that the Sanhedrin was plotting about the death of Jesus (Mar_14:1.). ********** So, in light of the shaky 'facts' you have cited, I would have to say that the account is not a parable since Scripture does not call it a parable. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |