Subject: Two "wills" of God? |
Bible Note: Hi Tim, Good Morning! The point I had in mind was related to "free will". The fact that the gentiles spoken of were without Hope and without God, means they had no alternative but to keep the law of God written on their hearts! What opportunity did they have to choose to the way of faith? They were without God. A word search of "choose" will show that God Himself is the initiator of who gets chosen and who gets passed by. Why were the Gentiles left in darkness but the Jews were given the the benefit of the knowledge of God? Even if Esau and Jacob were "types" of nations, it was still according to God's choice. What of their "free will"? You wrote: So, this is a wonderful passage for the corporate nature of election, since the whole world (Jew and Gentile) now have access to God (v. 18). Even if your premise is true, it does not answer the question: Why has God not provided every single inividual (or even every nation) the same degree of revelation, if He indeed desires to save all of mankind? Your Brother, John PS.Are nations saved or are individuals saved? |