Subject: josiebible, where does it say we can ask |
Bible Note: You said "They are different in function" referring to tongues in 1 Corinthians 12 and 1 Corinthians 14. ... I believe in chapter 12 Paul was listing the gifts of the Holy Spirit, including tongues. He made a brief reference in 13:1 ... then picked it up in chapter 14. I see the church was trying to emphasize the gift of tongues ... that is why he wrote chapter 14. I think in 14:5 Paul is "tongue in cheek" ... because he already said we need each part (12:12 ff)... and that not everyone speaks in tongues (12:30). Is prophecy and tongues equal? No according to 12:27-31. Prophets is second ... tongues is second to last. The gift of tongues IS NOT the only administered by the Holy Spirit at His will ... so why would Paul have even needed to write this letter of correction ... because I have already said ... they were incorrect in the application. You ask "If it is a miraculous language with someone present who know the language..why is there the need for the 'gift of interpretation'?" ... It is because the rest (most) of the people didn't understand the foreign tongue ... only a some did. When some message was spoken, let us say in the language of the Medes, the rest of the church didn't understand ... so Greek (or their main language) was also spoken, by interpretation. If there was no interpretation ... the rest of the church would not be edified. Matthew 18:20 does say "For where two or three are gathered together in my name, there am I in the midst of them" However, again it doesn't say more than three. Moreover, this verse has been taken out of context, by many, not just you. It is about church discipline (vv 15-20). The Lord is present in a similar situation in the OT (Due 19:15-17). I keep answering your questions ... are you willing to rethink your views? |