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NASB | 2 Chronicles 7:14 and My people who are called by My name humble themselves and pray and seek My face and turn from their wicked ways, then I will hear from heaven, will forgive their sin and will heal their land. |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | 2 Chronicles 7:14 and My people, who are called by My Name, humble themselves, and pray and seek (crave, require as a necessity) My face and turn from their wicked ways, then I will hear [them] from heaven, and forgive their sin and heal their land. |
Subject: Lionstrong, maybe this will clarify... |
Bible Note: 2 Tim 3:1617 All Scripture is inspired by God and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, for training in righteousness; so that the man of God may be adequate, equipped for every good work. Dear Steve, Since you do not accept that God has only one true people and that therefore the church is one with his OT people, then you will not accept this response to your challenge. But, nonetheless, here goes: Please note that this is not "spiritualizing" the text. ? This is not a denial of the immediate application of the text in its historical setting. It is interpreting Scripture with Scripture. It is looking at the text and asking what the rest of Scripture says either about this text in particular or about the subjects of this text. What does Scripture say about calamity and God's people? What does it teach about confessing sin? How does the whole of Scripture deal with the temple, and Jerusalem? What about consecration; how does the Bible deal with this issue? V. 13 - no rain. "No rain" is not the only hardship Solomon had petitioned God about. So, God was giving an abbreviation of a long list of petitions recorded in the previous chapter. This list not only included natural disasters, but also dealt with conflicts with the enemies of God's people. So rather than summarizing v. 13 as "no rain," it would be better to summarize it as calamity and war. When given a better summary the answer is yes. V. 14. God addresses HIS people, which is what we are, but since the coming of his Son, his people come from many nations, no longer just one. As such, we do not posses a land of our own anymore, although Israel according to the flesh does. The first part of what God promises (to forgive as we confess our sins) still applies, and is repeated in 1 John 1:9. But in what sense (spiritual, physical?) does the second promise apply? This was my original question put to Brother Leabeater at the beginning of the thread, not "if" it applies, for I believe it does, but "how." You'll recall that Paul applies the promise of the fifth commandment to gentile believer (Eph. 6) although it was given in the context of the OT church. Even though the immediate application of the promise is to Israeli real estate, Paul applies the promise to gentile believers. So, the promise of the healing of the land in like manner must in some way apply to God's people today, just like "that thy days may be long upon the land which the Lord thy God giveth thee" applies to believing gentile kids who obey their parents. You'll also note that under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit, Paul extends the promise from the land to the whole earth. V. 15 - In Jerusalem or in the Temple. Paul, you know, takes the promises given to the OT church and applies them to God's NT Israel. Believing Jews and gentiles share in the commonwealth of Israel (Eph. 2). God taught his OT church through types to look forward to the reality in the Messiah. To make a long dissertation short, we are the temple of God (1 Cor 3:16, 1 Jn. 3:24) in which he dwells by his Spirit. So, yes, we can pray in the temple. V. 16 - "I have chosen and consecrated this house." Are we a consecrated house? How can anyone doubt that we are a , if not the, consecrated house of God? 1 Pet 2:4,5 says, "And coming to Him as to a living stone which has been rejected by men, but is choice and precious in the sight of God, you also, as living stones, are being built up as a spiritual house for a holy priesthood, to offer up spiritual sacrifices acceptable to God through Jesus Christ." Maybe some who make a dichotomy between the OT church and the NT Israel will say that the letters of Peter do not apply to believers because it is written to the "Diaspora" (1 Pet. 1:1). Tell me, since you say "2 Tim 3:16 is for Christians, and some say the world, but 1 Cor 7:14 is not for us," then 1 Chro. 7:14 is therefore not profitable for us, why do you even bother to read this "unprofitable" section of Scripture, or do you? Or why does your pastor bother to preach this "unprofitable" portion of the Word, or does he? Peace, Lionstrong |