Results 1 - 7 of 7
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Idiom? | Bible general Archive 4 | Jim Estes | 205488 | ||
Matthew 12:39-40 “An evil and adulterous generation craves for a sign; and yet no sign will be given to it but the sign of Jonah the prophet; for just as Jonah was three days and three nights in the belly of the sea monster, so will the Son of Man be three days and three nights in the heart of the earth. When Jesus says, “three days and three nights in the heart of the earth” is he using an idiom meaning one day and night and parts of 2 other days and/or nights? If yes, who first decided it was an idiom? Since this is prophesy, and not subject to a private interpretation, where does scripture interpret “three days and three nights” as an idiom? |
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2 | Idiom? | Bible general Archive 4 | DocTrinsograce | 205489 | ||
I don't think anyone decides on idioms. If they do, I've never been invited to meeting! :-) Check out John Gill on the topic: http://eword.gospelcom.net/comments/matthew/gill/matthew12.htm |
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3 | Idiom? | Bible general Archive 4 | Jim Estes | 205569 | ||
Doc, Someone, at sometime, must have made the decision that when Jesus gave the only sign that he was the Messiah by saying “three days and three nights” that it was an idiom. I read John Gill on the subject concerning Matthew 12:40 wherein he took it as an idiom that when Jesus was placed into the tomb just before sunset, that counted as a full day and night, Saturday counted as a full day and night and whatever time Jesus may have been in the tomb on Sunday was the 3rd day and night. So what Jesus really said was “as Jonah was one day and one night and parts of two other days in the belly of the sea monster, so will the Son of Man be between 24 hours, 2 minutes and 72 hours in the heart of the earth.” This is the only sign Jesus said that he would give that he was the Messiah! 2 Peter 1:20 states, “But know this first of all, that no prophecy of Scripture is a matter of one's own interpretation. . .” John Gill does not back up his interpretation with scripture; therefore it does not comply with the requirement of 2 Peter 1:20. My question remains, what scriptures interpret “three days and three nights” to mean anytime between 24 hours, 2 minutes and 72 hours? Thank you for your assistance. Jim |
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4 | Idiom? | Bible general Archive 4 | Wild Olive Shoot | 205571 | ||
From what I can gather, it wasn’t an idiom if it was understood by those the words were spoken to. From what I can gather, and I wasn’t there so I must rely on those far more knowledgeable than I, but it was understood by the audience that a part of a day would constitute a whole day. “It will be seen in the account of the resurrection of Christ that he was in the grave but two nights and a part of three days. See Mat_18:6. This computation is, however, strictly in accordance with the Jewish mode of reckoning. If it had “not” been, the Jews would have understood it, and would have charged our Saviour as being a false prophet, for it was well known to them that he had spoken this prophecy, Mat_27:63. Such a charge, however, was never made; and it is plain, therefore, that what was “meant” by the prediction was accomplished.” - Albert Barnes Matthew 27:62,63: 62 Now the next day, that followed the day of the preparation, the chief priests and Pharisees came together unto Pilate, 63 Saying, Sir, we remember that that deceiver said, while he was yet alive, After three days I will rise again. Just because we may have difficulty understanding a phrase or word usage in our time, doesn’t mean they didn’t understand it perfectly when it was spoken. Stand in His grace, WOS |
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5 | Idiom? | Bible general Archive 4 | Jim Estes | 205628 | ||
Hi WOS, Thank you for your response. Matthew 24:4 “And Jesus answered and said to them, ‘See to it that no one misleads you’.” We should not be relying on “those far more knowledgeable,” but we should examine the scriptures with eagerness to determine the truth of the matter. (Acts 17:10-11) Jim |
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6 | Idiom? | Bible general Archive 4 | Wild Olive Shoot | 205629 | ||
Jim, Your study has not produced sufficient evidence for you to see that when the words were spoken, it was NOT an idiom because it was well understood at the time, and I believe there was scriptural evidence provided to support that it was, as well as some reliable commentary. So clearly there is some other means that makes it difficult for you to understand what the meaning is. It would seem, simply, that was the manner of speaking in that day. Since neither you nor I were actually there, we must also rely on the wisdom of those who have proven reliable and devoted their lives to helping us better understand God’s words and the times in which they were spoken. Words and phrases and manners of speaking do change over time and the words spoken can have a sure meaning to the present audience and us, in our time and culture, we may have difficulty understanding them. That doesn’t by definition make it an idiom, just simply from another time and more difficult to comprehend without proper instruction. Now, you claim this to be an idiom “outside of scripture”, that someone at sometime decided it was an idiom. That is just wrong brother, I don’t know how else to explain it. It’s not an idiom, never was and no matter how strongly you argue it is, will never be. It is Jim that makes the claim it is an idiom, Scripture never does. I’ll stick with the scripture, shouldn’t you? Bottom line seems to be this, rather than arguing this on such shaky ground, maybe you should be in prayer for the proper understanding. Stand in His grace, WOS |
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7 | Idiom? | Bible general Archive 4 | Jim Estes | 205637 | ||
Hi WOS, The original question I had: where is the scriptural evidence? You are in error on the point, none has been provided. Please see my response to Tim Moran. I’ve always hear it explained that it was an idiom, but if it was just the way people understood what 3 days and 3 nights was, that still does not address my original question. How do we know from scripture? I don’t think it really matters if you call it an idiom or an understanding. Thanks, Jim |
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