Subject: Idiom? |
Bible Note: Hi, Jim... People don't up and decide suddenly that a phrase is idiomatic. At least, in the grammatical-historical interpretation of Scripture one doesn't. I'm not sure who you're talking about. John Gill is explaining that it was not an idiom at all. By the way, Gill's expertise has been recognized for nigh on to three centuries, son. Your notion of "private interpretation" in particular, and Biblical exegesis in general, is somewhat skewed. Who's teaching you this stuff? (Please don't say you figured it out all on your own, because that will, after all, engage the private interpretation thing you're so concerned about avoiding.) In Him, Doc |