Subject: Idiom? |
Bible Note: Hi Brother Tim, Sorry if I missed the point. I think 72 hours because this was a sign. If it was anytime between 25-72 hours it would certainly diminish it as a sign. Why would Jesus not say "three days" only or "within three days?" I agree that Peter was not saying that private individuals cannot interpret Scripture, but he referred specifically to prophesy. I think you would still say the same principle applies. You were very clear and I appreciate your answer at a late hour. Thanks, Jim |