Subject: Idiom? |
Bible Note: Brother Tim, That is an excellent question! I would say the following scriptures would apply: Genesis 1:5 – God called the light day, and the darkness He called night. And there was evening and there was morning, one day. Genesis 1:13 – There was evening and there was morning, a third day. John 11:9 - Jesus answered, “Are there not twelve hours in the day? If anyone walks in the day, he does not stumble, because he sees the light of this world. But, for the sake of discussion, “three days and three nights” was meant to be one day and parts, perhaps only minutes, of two other days. Then my question is: who decided Jesus was crucified on Friday as opposed to Thursday or Wednesday and why? Under this reasoning could it not have been any of those days? Next question: Does this way of thinking by the Hebrews also apply to scripture concerning 7 days and/or 40 days? Example: the spies for Israel spent 40 days spying out the promise land. Could this have been 38 days and just small parts of two other days? They certainly got the full 40 years of punishment! Were the three days of thick darkness in Egypt really only one day and parts of two nights? I have tried to look at 2 Peter 1:20 in different ways, but keep coming back to the fact that “scripture interprets scripture.” I figured that is where the quote must have come from. I would really appreciate your elaboration on the point. Many thanks, Jim |